NEET Answer Key 2020 (13.09.2020) Tentative pdf download.

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Two small spherical metal balls, having equal masses, are made from materials of densities Pl and P2 (P1 = 8p2) and have radii of 1 mm and 2 mm, respectively, They are made to fall vertically (from rest) in a viscous medium whose coefficient of viscosity equals 11 and whose density is 0.1 P2 . The ratio of their terminal velocities would be,

(1)
39
72
79
(3) 72
79
(2) 36
19
(4) 36

A particle starting from rest, moves in a circle
of radius ‘r ‘ . It attains a velocity of Vo m Is
in the nth round. Its angular acceleration will
be,
vl (1) — rad I s 2
4nnr 2
vl
(2) 41tnr
rad I s2
(3) Vo rad!s2
n
vl ( 4) ——~ rad I s
2
2nnr 2

A person standing on the floor of an elevator
drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor in
time t1 if the elevator is at rest and in time
t2 if the elevator is moving uniformly. Then
(1) t1 > t2
(2) t1 = t2
(3) t1 < t2 or t1 > t2 depending upon
whether the lift is going up or down
(4) t1 <t2

A truck is stationary and has a bob suspended
by a light string, in a frame attached to the
truck. The truck, suddenly moves to the right
with an acceleration of a . The pendulum
will tilt
(1) to the left and angle of inclination of
the pendulum with the vertical 1s
. -1(aJ sm –
g
(2) to the left and angle of inclination of
the pendulum with the vertical 1s
(3) to the left and angle of inclination of
the pendulum with the vertical is
(4) to the left and angle of inclination of
the pendulum with the vertical 1s
-1(aJ tan –

Two metal spheres, one of radius R and the
other of radius 2R respectively have the same
surface charge density a . They are brought
in contact and separated. What will be the
new surface charge densities on them ?
5
cr2 =-cr
3
5
CT2 =-a
6
5
0″2 =-0′
2
5
CT2 =-a
6
[ Contd …

6.

The distance covered by a particle undergoing
SHM in one time period is (amplitude= A),
(1) 2 A (2) 4 A
(3) zero (4) A

7.

A mass falls from a height ‘h’ and its time of
fall ‘t ‘ is recorded in terms of time period T
of a simple pendulum. On the surface of earth
it is found that t = 2T. The entire set up is
taken on the surface of another planet whose
mass is half of that of earth and radius the
same. Same experiment is repeated and
corresponding times noted as t ‘ and T ‘.
Then we can say
(1) t’ < 2T’ (2) t’= 2T’ (3) t’= ✓2T’ (4) t’>2T’

8.

A tuning fork with frequency 800 Hz
produces resonance in a resonance column
tube with upper end open and lower end
closed by water surface. Successive
resonances are observed at lengths 9.75 cm,
31.25 cm and 52. 75 cm. The speed of sound
in air is,
(1) 344 m/s
(3) 500 m/s
(2) 172 m/s
(4) 156 m/s

An object flying in air with velocity
9 <l’l ( 20?+2s)-12k) ‘1 ~ s’ – <ii{ ( 20J+2s)-12k) suddenly breaks into
~ ~ -e} m -q, ~ ~oq’11.,,· c6T i3W1cf
1 :5 t, ~c: i:ffiiT t I ~- ~RT ‘qflT cflf
A A A
(100 i + 35 }+ 8k) ~ ~ i I~ ‘lfl1T c6T ~
wn –
A A A
(1) 20i+l5j-80k
A A A
(2) -20 i-15 j-80k
A A A
(3) 4i+23j-16k
A A A
(4) -IO0i-35J-8k
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 4
two pieces whose masses are in the ratio 1 :5.
The smaller mass flies off with a velocity
(100?+35)+8k). The velocity of the
larger piece will be,
A A A
(1) 20i+l5j-80k
A A /\
(2) -20 i-15 J-80k
A A A
(3) 4i+23j-I6k
/\ A A
(4) -100 i-35 j-8k

10
~ 1TT 0.2 A mCT ~ t’ I .:Jfr ffi~ 12 V t~
mu mcJ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ 0.4 A mu
A circuit when connected to an AC source of
12 V gives a current of 0.2 A. The same
circuit when connected to a DC source of
@ t° I ~ -qftq~ t – 12 V, gives a current of 0.4 A. The circuit is
(1) ~ LC (2) ~ LCR
(3) ~ LR (4) ~ RC
11 0.5 m ~ t- M ~ t ~ cfil” 0.1 T
‘3~c61ll ~ t-M ~ ~. -:ii” f?6 ~ t- ~ t~
t. lOrad/st~
~ lfQT i I ~ t° ~ afR ~ .)ftr t ~
~~i- (1) 0.5 V (2) lll:’ll” (3) 0.25 V (4) 0.125 V 12 fcolfr ~lllT ~ “qj)’ ~ ql{‘IR.ldl (μr) 1.0 ot!T ~llfui,cry (Er) 1.44 %-1 ~ 1,l&f’f ~ “WfilllT ‘cCr qIB m11T – (1) 2.08 X 108 m/s (2) 4.32xI08 m/s (3) 2.5 xI08 m/s (4) 3xl08 m/s 13 fcolfr ~ -q ±3×10-6C ~llTI q;r ~ ~ ft;:~ ~ t° I ~ ~ ~ ~ cfTffi ~ ~ ~ ~ i ? (1) 3×10-6 Nm2/C (2) 6 X 1 o-6 Nm2/C (3) -3xl0-6 Nm2/C (4) llfr Ci i3fr””{ C2 fi~lflJ’la i 1 ~ cfW6 ~ v~ ~ ~ qj]” ~ m “ftmfu>r Ci ~ ~ k~ ~ a i3fl””{ b -a tii!:l1~a ffl ~Rf M ll”{~,m~om~ ~- (1) 2.56xI0-13 m, -2.SkeV (2) 2.56 x 10-13 m, -13.6 eV (3) 0.53×10-13 m, -3.6eV (4 -13 ) 25.6×10 m, -2.SeV F1 _ Hindi+English ] 6 Two identical capacitors Ci and C2 of equal capacitance are connected as shown in the circuit. Terminals a and b of the key k are connected to charge capacitor Ci using battery of emf V volt. Now disconnecting a and b the terminals b and c are connected. Due to this, what will be the percentage loss of energy ? (1) 50 % (3) 75 % (2) 25 % (4) 0 % The radius of the first permitted Bohr orbit, for the electron, in a hydrogen atom equals 0 0.5 lA and its ground state energy equals -13.6 e V. If the electron in the hydrogen atom is replaced by muon ( μ – ) [ charge same as electron and mass 207 me], the first Bohr radius and ground state energy will be, (1) 2.56 x10-13 m, -2.8 keV (2) 2.56xl0-13 m, -13.6eV (3) 0.53xl0-13 m, -3.6eV (4) 25.6×10- 13 m, -2.SeV aglasem.com 16 ctt~wmXi3lRYt-~ 16
~t l~*&fOTfr.!,qr,p;rri~wqX The stress-strain curves are drawn for two different materials X and Y. It is observed that the ultimate strength point and the fracture point are close to each other for material X but are far apart for material Y. We can say that materials X and Y are likely to be (respectively), t ~ ‘q(1f “l1″Pl~ ~ afrr ~ ~ -q_q,-~ t ~ t ~ ~ W& Yt ~ ~-q_q,-~ tf I
~ ~ ~ ~ f fc6 wef X afrrY?61l~T: if
~f-
(1) ~ i3lR ~
(2) ((rllfkf.b &R ~
(3) ~ i3lR ~
(4) ~ i3lR ~
17 ‘3llffl if cf ~ Pc6 u-~ if uTTif afrr ~ T: ~ ffl &TT~ i3TI1: ‘q°t~I cfW~ ijf”{Tf
~ ~ t ~ qft 1£tll~lli r-0-i=m: 15 cm i3fl1: 20
cm i I ffiif cfiT ~ t – [P~ = 1000 kg/m3
~]
r
i ll 20 cm
15 cm!! l
l l:f~m,,,j,t,i,l,i,i,ll ~
iiRiT ‘ffiil”
(1) 1000 kg!m3
(3) 1200 kg!m3
(2) 1333 kg!m3
(4) 750 kgtm3
18 ~ ~ At fcii1:ft l1rt \j-jllldlf.61{ ~,
~ \lWf (~ = P, fcr&~ ~ mfurr = s)
‘q”{T t. if~ ~ ml” “9TllT “iIITdT t ~ ~ qft
~ cfiT ~ m-q -26°C i I W ~ ~ ~ qft
“ij’f-qt-q”{cf”$)”fcii1:ft&fOT~xil
~ “$1” ~ tllW,hdl cfiT llR Kam TR;r,’f qft
fcr&~ ~ ~ L ~ ~. W &’fUT ~ “$1” -q”{cf “$1”
~ if ~ “$1” -e:-{ ~ –
(1) 26K/(pxL)
(2) 26K/px(L+4s)
(3) 26K/px(L-4s)
(4) 26K/(px2L)
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 7
(1) brittle and plastic
(2) plastic and ductile
(3) ductile and brittle
( 4) brittle and ductile
17 In a u-tube as shown in the fig. water and oil
are in the left side and right side of the tube
respectively. The heights from the bottom for
water and oil columns are 15 cm and 20 cm
respectively. The density of the oil is
[take Pwater = 1000 kg/m3]
r
i :: 20 cm
15 cmH 1
l ~=:.,,,,::,m …1..1…) ;~
water oil
(1) 1000 kgtm3
(3) 1200 kgtm3
(2) 1333 kgtm3
(4) 750 kg!m3
18 A deep rectangular pond of surface area A,
containing water ( density= p , specific heat
capacity=s), is located in a region where the
outside air temperature is at a steady value
of -26°C. The thickness of the frozen ice
layer in this pond, at a certain instant is x.
Taking the thermal conductivity of ice as K,
and its specific latent heat of fusion as L, the
rate of increase of the thickness of ice layer,
at this instant, would be given by
(1) 26K/(pxL)
(2) 26K/px(L+4s)
(3) 26K/px(L-4s)
(4) 26K/(px2L)
[ Contd …
aglasem.com
19 GaAsP cfiT ~ ffl M p-n mtl’ ~ -e- 19
~ LED qi’) “”{‘q-fT c61” <f4T t-1 ~ ‘3RfW
1.9 eV i I~ T c61″ d(•l~l4 ~ – 0 (1) 654 A (2) 654 X 10-l l m (3) 10.4×10-26 m (4) 654 nm 20 ~ WTT 1lm qftq~ ‘3ffi”& ~ ~ ~ t 20
d&jWfl ~ ?
A
B
(1) OR
(3) NOR
R
0
1
0
1
+6V
R
LED(Y)
(2) NANO
(4) AND
An LED is constructed from a p-n junction
diode using GaAsP. The energy gap is

  1. 9 e V. The wavelength of the light emitted
    will be equal to
    0
    (1) 654 A
    (2) 654 X 10-llm
    (3) I0.4xI0-26 m
    (4) 654 nm
    The circuit diagram shown here corresponds
    to the logic gate,
    A
    B
    (1) OR
    (3) NOR
    R
    0
    1
    0
    1
    +6V
    R
    LED(Y)
    (2) NANO
    (4) AND
    21 ~l~IDU11, ~ (I”~ ~ 13TTG:~T fuq (’11’!Jqj froX
    (~-W!JWJi-fITTt-~~ “””” fllm i) t r( = C icv) .a ‘IR ‘6’1~: i- 577 757 21 The value of r( = Cicv), for hydrogen, helium and another ideal diatomic gas X (whose molecules are not rigid but have an additional vibrational mode), are respectively equal to, (1) 3’5’5 (2 ) 5’3’5 7 5 9 ( 3 ) 5’3’7 5 7 9 (4 ) 3′ 5’7 22 2s 0 c ~ ffitf clffl” M fcr~ffiii q;!ff ~ “”(ffl cnW 22 fcrVs 80°C ~ 70°C cfqj i6T ffl ~ 12 m cfiT ~ ffifT t” I ~ ~ ~ 10°c “ij” 6o 0 c (fqj i6T m ~ WR cflffl~WTT. WN1l c1) 20 m c2) 1s m (3) 10 ~ (4) 12 m F1 _ Hindi+English ] 8 5 7 7 (l) 3’5’5 7 5 9 c3 ) s’ 3′ 1 7 5 7 <2 ) s’ 3′ s 5 7 9 (4) 3’5’7 An object kept in a large room having air temperature of 25°C takes 12 minutes to cool from 80°C to 70°C. The time taken to cool for the same object from 70°C to 60°C would be nearly, (1) 20 min (2) 15 min (3) 10 min (4) 12 min [ Contd … aglasem.com 23 Mt:!&:fffi-q”(“n’l:flllm 23
    ~..t\’-tlc( ~ I ~ ffl t n ‘l:fllT ~ ffl ?/,
    The main scale of a vernier callipers has n
    divisions/cm. n divisions of the vernier scale
    (n-1) ‘qpTT it; “ftcnm % I cAT<R ~ qiJ
    o!tNct’iicfi i –
    1
    (1) – cm
    n2
    (2)
    1
    cm
    n(n+ 1)
    1 l
    (3) —- cm (4) – cm
    (n+l)(n-1) n
    24 ~ clffc@ fr.ne’r ~ tffl ~ Tf+i,l q;ci ~ qi){
    AA’q(‘i”~X VJ ~(i1:l”c6″«fft°cfllf~ WI v2 ~ ~ tT ~ c=rq c6″«IT % I ~ WT v t~i –
    (1) !-V1 +V2
    2 2
    l 1 l
    (3) -=-+-
    v VJ V2
    (2) V = ✓Vl V2
    2s ~ llRff~fc6 i3FR’f-q”(“M mc61″~
    l(~ooi, m ~tMm cITT”9:~t~ (~ R) h 1l{~illR
    -qr~it~ (~ – ~). m1TT (1) mgh GMm (3) – R +h (2) GMm R+h GMmh (4) R(R+h) 26 ~ c11g1-p1e( t c.fr&l,f c6l” ~l’il ~
    “i,)1SijT 2256 Jig t “ctT ~ ~ ~ qf<qd1 i-
    (1) 167 J (2) 2256 J
    (3) 2423 J (4) 2089 J
    F1 _ Hindi+English ] 9
    coincide with ( n -1) divisions of main scale.
    The least count of the vernier callipers is,
    1
    (1) – cm
    n2
    (2)
    1
    cm
    n(n+l)
    1 1
    (3) cm (4) – cm
    (n+l)(n-1) n
    24 A person travelling in a straight line moves
    with a constant velocity v1 for certain
    distance ‘x’ and with a constant velocity v2
    for next equal distance. The average velocity
    v is given by the relation
    (2) v= ,Jv1 v2
    2 1 1
    (4) -=-+v
    v1 v2
    25 Assuming that the gravitational potential
    energy of an object at infinity is zero, the
    change in potential energy (final – initial) of
    an object of mass m, when taken to a height
    26
    h from the surface of earth ( of radius R ), is
    given by,
    (1) mgh
    (3)
    GMm
    R+h
    (2)
    GMm
    R+h
    GMmh
    (4) R(R+h)
    1 g of water, of volume 1 cm3 at 100°C, is
    converted into steam at same temperature
    under normal atmospheric pressure
    (~lx105 Pa). The volume of steam
    formed equals 1671 cm3• If the specific latent
    heat of vaporisation of water 1s
    2256 Jig, the change in internal energy is,
    (1) 167 J (2) 2256 J
    (3) 2423 J (4) 2089 J
    [ Contd

A= 6000 A t fui:i; !.hl\3’1~14,( ~ ~ ~ 27
~c61″c6MP-f~0oilfufrq;) M ~ ~ ~T -€r ~ ~ ~ i, a'[ ~ ~ 30% ~ “(if@T i I ~ Wfil~T c61” rj(•i~f’A i – Angular width of the central maxima in the 0 Fraunhofer diffraction for A = 6000 A is 00 . When the same slit is illuminated by another monochromatic light, the angular width decreases by 30%. The wavelength of this light is, 0 0 (1) 6000A (2) 420A 0 0 (3) 1800A (4) 4200A 28 M Wfil~T ~ m qiJ f.f>l44,lt11 4.0 e V t I ~ wd -€r tfiliA ~ cfir ~ t ~ Wfil~T c6i’ ~ d (•1aaf i (~) (1) 31 nm (2) 310 run (3) 3100 run (4) 966 run 0 0 (1) 6000A (2) 420A 0 0 (3) 1800A (4) 4200A 28 The work function of a photosensitive material is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photon emission from the substance is (approximately) (1) 31 nm (2) 310 nm (3) 3100 nm (4) 966 nm 29 M IDiR afR %BT a.-r.fillT cn) ~-?r BllR 29 M cfql ~ ~ lfm i I at,1ab41 Ap
A proton and an a – particle are accelerated
from rest to the same energy. The de Broglie
wavelengths A P and Aa, are in the ratio,
i3fr{‘A,(J,qj”f~i –
(1) ✓2 :1 (2) 4:1
(3) 2:1 (4) 1:1
30 3lmg 2.2×109 s t M {~£t’1Q,fcR.q ~ t
~ M iaur {~q11qfiltt 24hi1M
~ ~. ~ 1!~ t ~ “?r ~ 2.5RE
t qj”f i3ilcldf.f>l(rl WIT –
24 12
(1) 2.5 h
(2) 2.5 h
(3) 6 ✓2 h (4) 12 ✓2 h
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 10
(1) ✓2 :1
(3) 2:1
(2) 4: 1
(4) 1:1
30 The rate of radioactive disintegration at an
instant for a radioactive sample of half life
2.2 X 10 9 s is 1010 s – l. The number of
radioactive atoms in that sample at that
instant is,
(1) 3.17×1018 (2) 3.17xI019
(3) 3.17xI020 (4) 3.17xI017
31 The time period of a geostationary sate11ite
is 24 h, at a height 6RE ( RE is radius of
earth) from surface of earth. The time period
of another satellite whose height is 2.5 RE
from surface will be,
24 12
(1) 2.5 h
(2) 2.5 h
(3) 6 ✓2 h (4) 12 ✓2 h
[ Contd …
aglasem.com
32 ‘t!TT~t~t~t~t me-r ~ ~ ~ ifu; l’fQ; ft &i ~ i I
~ ,a ~ !,@lqffi m”U c6m iffi ~ i ?
E
(a)
E
(b)
E
(c)
E
(d)
(1) (a) afr”t (b)
(2) tcRrr (a)
(3) (a) afr”t (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
33 m~cfiTtfil{tqugMlf6o (ffl~= μ)1RWT~i IW~1l\ c6Tf ~ ~ \’.}Jj!.igrkl ~ uf@T t ~ ~ w ‘lfu 1IGR ~ q)”{ “CJ@T I ~ ~fi=l~lll am -qisfur ~ cfiT qf):0 114’1 Fi, ~ Fi – (1) 1;1 ~ mg JI+μ 2 (2) 11l=mg (3) 111 =mg+ μmg (4) 1;1 =μmg F1 _ Hindi+English] 11 ‘ 32 The variation of EMF with time for four types of generators are shown in the figures. Which amongst them can be called AC ? E (a) E (b) E (c) E (d) (1) (a) and (b) (2) only (a) (3) (a) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c), (d) 33 A body of mass m is kept on a rough horizontal surface ( coefficient of friction = μ ). A horizontal force is applied on the body, but it does not move. The resultant of normal reaction and the :frictional force acting on the object is given by F, where Fis, (1) l11=:;;mgJ1+μ2 (2) 11l=mg (3) 111 =mg+ μmg (4) 11l=μmg [Contd … aglasem.com 34 ~-q””{ffl~ 5mr.nT~q;ur~m 34 ~ ~ -q ¥ ~ t I ~ “B” -ey ~ ~ ~r.nT~mt~w-:m A particle of mass Sm at rest suddenly breaks on its own into three fragments. Two fragments of mass m each move along mutually perpendicular direction with speed v each. The energy released during the process is, -q “B11R ~ V ~ 1TfcP,ITT(f t I W ~ -q “T@ ~t- (1) imv2 (2) 4 2 -mv 2 3 (3) 3 2 (4) ~mv 2 -mv 5 3 35 500 g r.nT ~ fqug ‘ffi” i3lWlf -q ~(11-llqlm °9’ t°, lR ~ ~ ~. ~ X-~ ~ -q q”~ ~ ~ cfi«IT t, ~ fcfi,;rr 1J<:IT t I w ~ ~ ~iffl X = 8 m am X = 12 m tR ~~+TR~lH:~ – F(N) 20 ——, 10 4 5 8 10 12 -10 -20 -25 …………………………… . (1) 23 mls ‘3t!”l 20.6 mls (2) 18 m/s ‘3tl”( 20.6 mls (3) 18 m/s ‘3t!”l 24.4 m/s (4) 23 m/s ‘3t!”l 24.4 mls X (m) 36 ~ 50 cm ‘3{I””{ ~ 2 kg cCi- ~ iro fB~os( 30° q;)uJ ~ ~ qffl %BT 3fF@” ~ inlR c6l” ‘3m ~ ffi t I W fu~os( ~ ~ ~ ctl” “qftif 4 m/s t I ‘3lffif T5o -er<. fu~os< mr ~ 11-4T ~ ~. [g = 10 m/s2 ~1] (1) 1.2 m (2) 2.4 m (3) 2.2 m (4) 1.6 m F1 _ Hindi+English ] 12 3 2 ~mv2 (1) (2) -mv 2 3 3 2 ~mv2 (3) (4) -mv 5 3 35 An object of mass 500 g, initially at rest, is acted upon by a variable force whose X-component varies with X in the manner shown. The velocities of the object at the points X =8 m and X = 12 m, would have the respective values of (nearly) F(N) 20 —–~ 10 4 5 8 10 12 -10 -20 -25 (1) 23 m/s and 20.6 m/s (2) 18 m/s and 20.6 mls (3) 18 mls and 24.4 mls (4) 23 mls and 24.4 mls X (m) 36 A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 50 cm rolls up an inclined plane of angle of inclination 30°. The centre of mass of the cylinder has speed of 4 m/s. The distance travelled by the cylinder on the inclined surface will be, [ take g = 10 ml s 2 ] (1) 1.2 m (2) 2.4 m (3) 2.2 m (4) 1.6 m [ Contd … aglasem.com 37 M~~c6l”~Pt l~~a:r~t 37 ~!IT m ~ m ~ -q cfITGT T[c:[l i 1 ~ ~ ‘qpJ c6l” ~ w?r – (1) p 4 (3) 0 (2) p (4) p 2 38 ~ml1’fuftm”B”~cJRif 38
W6T!IT if ~ if ~ ~ -itl’ i, ell ~
~ t ~ ~ t- fcne’r ~ ‘Cf( “!fl!lR’IT i
(1) 9 A
2
(3) 5 A
2
(2) 11″‘
2
(4) 10 A
2
39 M fu iI’ffirf ~ c6l” ~ ~ 25 cm i I~
~ 1!lSo c6l” q?.fj”ffi ~ ~ 1!lSo t)- q?.fi”ffi ~ 39
t1° m ~ i I ~ ~ if> W~ c6T l:)fqqcf.-ficb 1.5
tw~m1ft – c1) 18.75 cm, 37.5 cm (2) 50 cm, 100 cm (3) 100 cm, 50 cm (4) 25 cm, 50 cm 40 ~ ~. ~ 100 m ~ -en: fum 200 m ~ t m ~ c6l” mn’ B ~-~ c6l” ‘3IT{ ~ ~w if 40 ~-err 25 m/s B mtl-~c::rft Tf4T
t l~GA1′i3lll:-~B~
c6tiiT ? (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 4s t “lf!l”‘i:ffii 120 m c6l” ~ “CR
(2) ~ ~ ~ -ltY ffl
(3) 2s t “!f!l”‘i:ffii 180 m c6l” ~ “CR
(4) 2s t “!f!/qffi” 20 m c6l” ~ “CR
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 13
An equiconvex lens has power P. It is cut
into two symmetrical halves by a plane
containing the principal axis. The power of
one part will be,
(1)
p
4
(3) 0
(2) p
(4)
p
2
In a Young’s double slit experiment, if there
is no initial phase difference between the light
from the two slits, a point on the screen
corresponding to the fifth minimum has path
difference
(I) 9 A
2
(3) 5 A
2
(2) 11 A
2
(4) 10 A
2
A double convex lens has focal length
25 cm. The radius of curvature of one of the
surfaces is double of the other. Find the radii
if the refractive index of the material of the
lens is 1.5.
(1) 18.75 cm, 37.5 cm
(2) 50 cm, 100 cm
(3) 100 cm, 50 cm
(4) 25 cm, 50 cm
Two bullets are fired horizontally and
simultaneously towards each other from roof
tops of two buildings 100 m apart and of
same height of 200 m, with the same velocity
of 25 m/s. When and where wi11 the two
bullets collide ? (g = 1 O m/s2)
(1) after 4s at a height of 120 m
(2) they will not collide
(3) after 2s at a height of 180 m
(4) after 2s at a height of 20 m
[ Contd …
aglasem.com
41 ct~lfQ; 1TQ; -qftq~ ~ M ‘3llct~T i:lh.r2.lflc:< qj”f ~ 41
t –
20Q
30Q
(1) 0.5 V
(3) 0.6 V
30Q
20Q
2V
(2) 0.4 V
(4) 0 V
p 11
42 ct~ITT; lfQ; l{)G{ ~ Q =
12
~ mq 42
~ 1l’ t I i3l”& ~ ey1, ’11’1″1r!( ~ m) l1 “‘ p 12 (1) m, Q =4 “‘ p 11 (2) m, Q = 12 “‘ P l2 -Ii (3) m, -=– Q 12 +l1 (4) ~. F1 _ Hindi+English ] 14 The reading of an ideal voltmeter in the circuit shown is, 20n 30Q (1) 0.5 V (3) 0.6 V 300 20Q 2V (2) 0.4 V (4) 0 V The metre bridge shown is in balance position p 11 with Q = 12 . If we now interchange the positions of galvanometer and cell, will the bridge work ? If yes, what will be balance condition? p Q ( >-(—-) l1 p 12 (1) yes, Q =4 p Ii (2) yes, Q = 12 (3) p 12 -l1 yes, -= Q /2+’1 ( 4) no, no null point [ Contd … aglasem.com 43 1!~ t g~r.6):q l$T t cJR ~ – ~ “f:Rs6 43 H, ~ V-ei-~ .,fu q;)uJ 8 t ~ ~er
The relations amongst the three elements of
earth’s magnetic field, namely horizontal
component H, vertical component V and dip t, (BE=~ g~f.61:q lffST)
(1) V = BE cos 8, H = BE sin8
(2) V= BE, H = BE tan8
(3) V=BEtano, H=BE
(4) V = BE sin 8, H = BE COS<)
8 are, (BE = total magnetic field)
(1) V = BEcoso, H = BEsin8
(2) V=BE, H=BEtanB
(3) V = BE tan o, H = BE
(4) V = BE sinB, H = BE cosB
44 GJ~1~2Wc#rffl9QTT:200 44
~ 100 t” am~ n: 40 cm
Two toroids 1 and 2 have total no. of turns
200 and 100 respectively with average radii
40 cm and 20 cm respectively. If they carry
same current i, the ratio of the magnetic fields
along the two loops is,
afR 20 cm t” I me: mu (i) ~ mfi i. clT ~ ~ i:rT~TT t T ‘9,~r.611.1 !ff3IT qiT
~t”(
1) 2:1
(3) 1:1
(2) 1:2
(4) 4:1
4s ~m’clfq”Rifc6~ermi~mwt
am~-e:~GJ’qpTTt° I~
i:rT~T c#f ~ R t I W i:rT~T t ~ P ~ ~
g~ri)q ~ t” –
–) -1—-‘ ;;
i 90~
1,
(1) 3μ0 i/32R, ~ c#r i3TI\
(2)
μoi
2R ‘~ c#r ffl
(3) (4) 3μ0 i/32R, ~ c61″ i3TI\ F1 _ Hindi+English ] 15 (1) 2:1 (2) 1:2 (3) 1:1 (4) 4:1 45 A straight conductor carrying current i splits into two parts as shown in the figure. The radius of the circular loop is R. The total magnetic field at the centre P of the loop is, ) 1, (1) 3μo i/32R, inward (2) μoi . 2 R, mward (3) zero (4) 3μo i/32R, outward [ Contd … aglasem.com 46 f;ri:.i- ~ “ij” ~ fu~-~ cfiT Btl ~ t ? (1) BF3 < NH3 < NF3 < H2o (2) H2o < NF3 < NH3 < BF3 (3) NH3 < BF3 < NF3 < H20 (4) BF3 < NF3 < NH3 < H20 47 ~ ~ ~ Rbfl(.’1″1cb< 01 mu ~ \flqft’¥a ~ #ll{l~S ~ ~ 1’t’f ~ – (1) MgC12 (2) CaS04 (3) MgS04 (4) Na2S04 48 ffl”{ ~ ~ #11 <- ~ (MCI · 2 H20) ‘3ffifr-fr U ~
t ?
(1) RbCl
(3) LiCl
(2) KCl
(4) CsCl •
46 Which of the following is the correct order
of dipole moment ?
(1) BF3 < NH3 < NF3 < H2o
(2) H20 < NF3 < NH3 < BF3
(3) NH3 < BF3 < NF3 < H20
(4) BF3 < NF3 < NH3 < H20
47 Crude sodium chloride obtained by
crystallisation of brine solution does not
contain –
(1) MgC12
(3) MgS04
(2) CaS04
(4) NazS04
48 Which of the alkali metal chloride (MCI)
forms its dihydrate salt (MCI· 2 H20)
49 ~ ~ ~ ~ Qt:{fllPl~’l #121 {l~S 1:!;cf;
oo’A’~t~Al~c#I” 49 18 1 t I 1A1 am ‘B’ ?fj1=m: cfll’T ~ ? easily ? (1) RbCl (3) LiCl (2) KCl (4) CsCl Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution forms a complex ‘A’, in which hybridisation state of Al is ‘B’. What are ‘A’ (1) [Al(H and ‘B’, respectively ? 20)4 ]3+, (2) [AI(H2o\J3+, (3) [AI(H2o\J3+, (4) [Al(H20)4 ]3+, dsp2 sp 3d2 3 sp 50 ffi ~ ~ U cGAm cbl~f?.cb rift (~ rift) ~ ~ oo t ? (1) fBf(ilc:bl1 (2) fu~ (3) ~ (4) fBR;i2bc: 51 1frnf cfl~ cb1 q5qlf.l~ I (1) [ Al(H20)4 ]3+, (2) [ AI(H2o)6 ]3+, (3) [A1(H20)6 J3+, (4) [ Al(H20)4J+, dsp2 sp3 d2 50 Which of the following compounds is used in cosmetic surgery ? (1) Silicones (2) Zeolites (3) Silica (4) Silicates c1) ~. ~i-qcfl~m~ 51
i,
Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) Ores are minerals that may contain a
(2) 1PT ~ ~ t ‘111″ ~ wm -?r ~ metal.
m-aT t I
(3) ~$11Plcb ~ dcb’1″ic6l ~ ‘111″ ~ U ~
t –i~ t mm i, ~ ~ t1 (4) ii’ ~wpRlcb ffl “ij” ~ iliR crwr
m=11~Plcb w~ i 1
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 16
(2) Gangue is an ore contaminated with
undesired materials.
(3) The scientific and technological process
used for isolation of the metal from its
ore is known as metallurgy.
(4) Minerals are naturally occurring
chemical substances in the earth’s crust.
[ Contd …
aglasem.com
52 ~ ~ ‘X’ \IRif t mer ~fentn m -q””{ ~
•y•~c6″«rri”,~,rn-
~ ~ @’ i” I fR:r ‘Y’, CuSO4 t ~ -q’
i3fcf~R ffl -q””{ Cu3P 2 ~ i crrr ~ ~ -q’ if
~ i I ~ ‘X’ ~ ~ ~ I
(1) As2O3 (2) CaiPO4)2
(3) C½P2 (4) NH4Cl
53 ~ lblm HI t° ijjlcffl1~fe:s·’j-q’ if~ ,jiq’qlllcfi
TT~i?
(1) H3PO2 (2) H3PO4
(3) H4P2O7 (4) H3PO3
54 ffi -q’ “« •~• cnl ~ “(!SI %’i’:l1Pf ~ I
(1) H2SO4 (2) H2S2Os
(3) H2S2O7 (4) H2SO3
55 ‘3f~KMno4-cm~m
13-lll!”‘lsl~s ~ ~ 13q-q1ft:ct fcnliT \jj”fffi i cIT olll!”‘lsl~s
~ ‘X’ -q’ q flq Rfa eiT \jj”fffi t” I ‘X’ i –
(1) 103 (2) 10 –
(3) I2 (4) I04
56 [CoCI6 ]
4-~~~mr~wm
(e’r:i:~q;-~_t) 18000 cm-I i I [ CoCI4 ]

2

~ ~ -e1″.~.tR1.t Wlt-
(1) 18000 cm-1 (2) 8000 cm-1
(3) 6000 cm-1 (4) 16000 cm-1
57 ~-A -q’ ~ 7rl ~ cm ffl ~-B -q’
:
cfiffi’f-A ~-B
(i) NazO (a) ~
(ii) Al20 3 (b) ~
(iii) N2O (c) ~
(iv) Cl20 7 ( d) ~
~~-q’-e-~ i ~ ~ ~ ~ i?
(1) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(2) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(3) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(4) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 17
52 A compound ‘X’ upon reaction with H2O
produces a colorless gas ‘Y’ with rotton fish
smell. Gas ‘Y’ is absorbed in a solution of
CuSO4 to give Cu3P2 as one of the products.
Predict the compound ‘X’.
(1) As2O3 (2) Ca3(PO4h
(3) Ca3P2 (4) NH4Cl
53 Which of the following oxoacids of
phosphorus has strongest reducing property ?
(1) H3PO2 (2) H3PO4
(3) H4P2O7 (4) H3PO3
54 Identify the correct formula of ‘oleum’ from
the following.
(1) H2SO4 (2) H2S2Os
(3) H2S2O7 (4) H2SO3
55 When neutral or faintly alkaline KMnO 4 is
treated with potassium iodide, iodide ion is
converted into ‘X’. ‘X’ is –
(1) I03 (2) 10-
(3) 12 (4) 104
56 The Crystal Field Stabilisation Energy
(CFSE) for [ C oC 16 ]
4

  • is 18000 cm-1. The
    CFSE for [CoC14 ]
    2
  • will be –
    (1) 18000 cm-I (2) 8000 cm-1
    (3) 6000 cm-1 (4) 16000 cm-1
    57 Match the oxide given in column A with its
    property given in column B :
    Column – A Column – B
    (i) Na2O (a) Neutral
    (ii) Al2O3 (b) Basic
    (iii) N2O (c) Acidic
    (iv) C12O7 (d) Amphoteric
    Which of the following options has all correct
    pairs ?
    (1) (i)-(a), (ii)-( d), (iii)-(b ), (iv)-( c)
    (2) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
    (3) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
    (4) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
    [ Contd …
    aglasem.com
    58 NaOH $” 2 M “G’l”m1:f ~m–ir,; cf>T c.T”f~ 58 The density of 2 M aqueous solution of
    1.28 g/cm3 t I ~ c6t ~ ~ I [w:rl NaOH is 1.28 g/cm3. The molality of the
    T(1:fT %- : NaOH c6T lf!ITT ~ = 40 g mol-1]
    solution is [Given that molecular mass of
    NaOH = 40 g mol-1]
    (1) 1.67m (2) 1.32m
    (1) 1.67m (2) 1.32m
    (3) 1.20 m (4) 1.56 m
    (3) 1.20m (4) 1.56 m
    59 3 ~ ~ am 3 ~ ~ ~ cfWfT cfi~ i– 59 Orbital having 3 angular nodes and 3 total
    (1) 4f (2) 6d nodes is –
    (3) 5p (4) 3d (1) 4f (2) 6d
    (3) 5p (4) 3d
    60 ijl~-i)ll!1 ~ ifl firat

[w:rl T(1:fT i : m ~. ao = 52.9 pm]

[Given that Bohr radius, a0 = 52.9 pm] (1) 52.9 1t pm (2) 105.8 pm (1) 52.9 1t pm (2) 105.8 pm (3) 211.6 pm (4) 211.6 1t pm (3) 211.6 pm (4) 211.6 n pm 61 374 °C cl’~ 1 GITT” ffl -qi_ ll!(ilqli54 ifl 1.8 g ID”U 61 The volume occupied by 1.8 g of water trU T(1:fT i3IB@’1 ~ – vapour at 374 °C and 1 bar pressure will be – [R = 0.083 GITT” LK-1 moJ-1 c6T m cITT’.] [Use R = 0.083 bar LK-1 mol-1 ] (1) 3.10 L (3) 96.66 L (2) 5.37 L (4) 55.87 L 62 i:i;c6 6nc::~T ~ I o5 Nm—‘2 t fun’ ffl t ~. 300 K ‘tf'{, 10-3 m3 ‘B” 10-2 m3 cfcn til-ldl~ll ~ -a ~ cfi”W t I fye- ‘tf'{ ~ T(1:fT ffi i – (1) + 900 kJ (3) + 270 kJ F1 _ Hindi+English ] (2) – 900 kJ (4) – 900 J 18 (1) 3.10 L (3) 96.66 L (2) 5.37 L (4) 55.87 L 62 An ideal gas expands isothermally from 10-3 m3 to 10-2 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure of 105 Nm-2. The work done on the gas is – (1) + 900 kJ (3) + 270 kJ (2) – 900 kJ (4) – 900 J [ Contd … aglasem.com 63 ~am~ ~@11)’~ ~~f fro-cn113®<1Jn<.1 63 ~ ~ t ~ fcfi ~ ~ ~ 1Nf t – Reversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal and adiabatic conditions are as shown in the figure. i p B(PB, VB, TB) c(Pc, Ve, Tc) V ➔ ~ if -« rGR-m ~ ~ -ttf t ? (1) w~> w~
(2) Tc> TA
(3) ~ s-airom > ~ s”l\”~ir
(4) TA= T8
64 0.01 M NaOH (aq) ~ q;J pH mlfT –
(1) 12 (2) 9
(3) 7.01 (4) 2
65 ~a W{cf; GFIT ~ tr wr ~ c6″f wadiabatic (2) Tc> TA (3) ~ Sisothermal > ~ Sadiabatic (4) TA=T8 64 The pH of 0.01 M NaOH (aq) solution will be – (1) 12 (3) 7.01 (2) 9 (4) 2 65 Which of the following cannot act both as Bronsted acid and as Bronsted base ? (1) HCl (3) HC03 66 The molar solubility of CaF 2 C¾p = 5.3 x 10-ll) in 0.1 M solution of NaF will be – (1) 5.3 x 10-9 mol L-1 (2) 5.3 x 10-tO mol L-1 (3) 5.3 x 10-11 mol L-1 (4) 5.3 x 10-8 mol L-1 67 The oxidation state of Cr in CrO6 is – (1) + 6 (2) + 4 0) -6 ~) +12 [ Contd … aglasem.com 68 ~cITTmei-– ~ “jfif;q (i) V20s (a) c6T-q dllcf{-llcb(OI (ii) TiC14 + (b) Q,t•t.fll ~ –E1 c6T Al(CH3) 3 6′:§i;rlc6\cb (OI (iii) PdC12 (c) H2S04 ~ (iv) ~f;ririuf “B S02 c6T dll¾lcb{01 (d) -q~ c6T
isl_§i;r!c6\cb (OI
~~-m~Btti-? (I) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d) (2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b) (3) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b) (4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d) 69 ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ cblisl12′,21l11 i- – EB (1) CH3 -CH-CH2 -CH2 -CH3 EB (2) CH3 -CH2 -CH2 EB (3) ( CH3) 3 C – CH- CH3 EB (4) CH3 -CH2 -CH-CH2 -CH3 68 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Match the catalyst with the process : Catalyst Process V20s (a) The oxidation of ethyne to ethanal TiC14 + (b) Polymerisation Al(CH3) 3 of alkynes PdC12 (c) Oxidation of S02 in the manufacture of H2S04 Nickel (d) Polymerisation complexes of ethylene Which of the following is the correct option ? (1) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d) (2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b) (3) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b) (4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d) 69 The most stable carbocation, among the following, is – E9 (1) CH3 – CH- CH2 – CH2 – CH3 EE> (2) CH3 -CH2 -CH2 E9 (3) ( CH3) 3 C- CH- CH3 EB (4) CH3 – CH2 – CH- CH2 – CH3 70 ~ ·~51·q;m cm ~ ~ cffi ~ iill Cl2 t mtr 70 T-‘f ~ -q'{ lfBf ~ lTT”it-rffil”{T
i-.i- The alkane that gives only one mono-chloro product on chlorination with C12 in presence of diffused sunlight is – (1) n-ffl (2) dll~l-t1Cl~’1 (3) 2, 2 -~ (4) f.f~ ‘lif’Rii~ ~-r,:r ~ H3C-C = CH 873 K A, ~ ‘A’ “B ~ funTT ( cr) cm ~
t-
(1) 24
(3) 21
F1 _ Hindi+English ]
(2) 18
(4) 9
20
(1) n-pentane
(2) Isopentane
(3) 2, 2 – dimethylbutane
( 4) neopentane
71 . In the following reaction,
red hot
iron tube
H3C – C = CH —-~ A, the
873 K
number of sigma ( cr) bonds present in the
product A, is –
(1) 24
(3) 21
(2) 18
(4) 9
[ Contd …
aglasem.com
72 ~ ~ ~ ‘1’11 ~ ~2<~>- t m~ ~ 72
~maTi.i- (1) N02 (3) qfG{ ~ (2) C02 (4) q~f{;iljj.j ~ 73 .~ilflif~c61″~’1’11~ 73 ~ m-efr i. i – (1) H2C = CH- CH2CI H2C = CH – CH2OH ;;n;ft;:rNaOH (2) 0-CH2Cl s,r,i\,i NaOH o-CH20H (3) Q Cl s,r,i\,iNaOH CH3 Q e© ONa CH3 ~NaOH (4) H3C-CH2 -Cl—-~ H3C-CH2 -OH 74 ~ ~ 0,(rq,ll\lM t cfl”l’itf en) 573 K “Cl\ ll-4 cJ>TCR t ~ ~ m i, m m qWff iffi1G 14 “WIT – (1)
(2) (3) ~ cbld!tPffifiil4> ~ (4) ~ &I~~
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 21
The liquified gas that is used in dry cleaning
along with a suitable detergent is –
(1) N02 (2) C02
(3) Water gas (4) Petroleum gas
The hydrolysis reaction that takes place at
the slowest rate, among the following, is –
(1) H2C = CH – CH2Cl
H2C = CH – CH2OH
aq. NaOH
(2) 0-CH2Cl aq. NaOH
0-CH,OH
(3) Q c1
CH3
Q 0EE)
ONa
CH3
aq. NaOH
(4 ) H3C – CH2 – C 1 _ a–q–”-.- –N_ a_O_H_____,_
H3C-CH2 -OH
When vapours of a secondary alcohol is
passed over heated copper at 573 K, the
product formed is –
(1) a ketone
(2) an alk.ene
(3) a carboxylic acid
( 4) an aldehyde
[ Contd …

CuSO4 · 5H2O t m~ “lt:i;forcr, h=R” ~-mi- ~ iffl t6T tj”&TT wf’r –
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 1
75 The number of hydrogen bonded water
molecule(s) associated with
CuSO4 · 5H2O is –
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 1
76 ~ ~ c6l “li5f, ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ 76
m “ij°, Ni0_980 i:rr:rr Tfm 1 ~ ~ Ni2+ crm
Formula of nickel oxide with metal deficiency
defect in its crystal is Nio_9gO. The crystal
contains Ni2+ and Ni3+ ions. The fraction of
nickel existing as Ni2+ ions in the crystal is –
Ni3+ ~ i I ~ ~ Ni2+ ~ t ~ ~
c6Tl’.3lliTt- (l) 0.50 (2) 0.31 (3) 0.96 (4) 0.04 77 am~t ~ “ij” ~ ~ ~ q@ GJ” ~ Acrm B t ~ t ~otT ~ f.r:.r ~ u ctft.r-m c6~ -m’r t ? (1) LimixV=O,~TcrmP-q'”{ (2) A-A crm B-B t ffl i3@1T~ ~ ~. ’31” A-B ~an’ t ffl ffi cl’@ ~ ~$~m11T I (3) A-A crm B-B t ffl i3@1T~ ~ ~. ’31” A-B ~an’ t ffl ffi qffl ~ ~U~m1lll (4) Limix H = 0, ~ T crm P -q'”{ 78 ~ ~ . u’fo’tql’l4 cf;Tlffi;f-‘3l~T 0.02 tl ~
~ ~ c6T ~ ~ 1.2atm i err cf>T ~Tqi ~ m1lT – (1) 1.176 atm (3) 1.18 atm (2) 0.98 atm (4) 1.76 atm 79 Al3+/Al, Ag+/Ag, K+/K am cr3+/cr t fe’A 11-it lfFlqi ~ ~ ?61,liT: -1.66 V, 0.80 V, -2.93 V crm –0.74 V ~ I ~i3TT t i3lqtjlllcfi -mi:r&i cf>T ffl ~ ~ i – (1) K >Al> Ag> Cr (2) Al> K >Ag> Cr (3) Ag > Cr > Al > K (4) K >Al> Cr > Ag F1 _ Hindi+English ] 22 77 (1) 0.50 (2) 0.31 (3) 0.96 (4) 0.04 Which of the following statements is correct regarding a solution of two components A and B exhibiting positive deviation from ideal behaviour? (1) Limix V = 0 at constant T and P. (2) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are equal to those between A-B. (3) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are stronger than those between A-B. (4) Limix H = 0 at constant T and P. 78 In water saturated air, the mole fraction of water vapour is 0.02. If the total pressure of the saturated air is 1.2 atm, the partial pressure of dry air is – (1) 1.176 atm (2) 0.98 atm (3) 1.18 atm (4) 1.76 atm 79 The standard electrode potential ( E0 ) values of Al3+/Al, Ag+/Ag, K+/K and cr3+;cr are -1.66 V, 0.80 V, -2.93 V and -0.74 V, respectively. The correct decreasing order of reducing power of the metal is – (1) K >Al> Ag> Cr (2) Al > K > Ag > Cr (3) Ag > Cr > Al > K ( 4) K > Al > Cr > Ag [ Contd … aglasem.com 80 ~ ‘3l~Rb~, ~ m cf@ ~ ~ C cf~ D 80 T: i :
H 3C-CH2 -CH2 -O-C(CH3 )
3
HI ( a@rit<Pf°) C + D
~
(1) H 3C-CH2 -CH2 – I cJqr
HO-C(CH3)3
(2) H3C – CH2 – CH2 – OH oUT
HO-C(CH3 )
3
(3) H3C – CH2 – CH2 – I aqr
I-C(CH3 )3
(4) H 3C – CH2 – CH2 – OH om
I-C(CH3 )
3
The major products C and D formed in the
following reaction respectively are :
excess HI
~
C+D
(1) H 3C-CH2 -CH2 -I
and HO-C( CH3 )
3
(2) H 3C – CH2 – CH2 – OH
and HO-C(CH3 )
3
(3) H3C – CH2 – CH2 – I
and I- c( CH3 )
3
(4) H 3C- CH2 :– CH2 – OH
and I-C( CH3 )
3
The reaction that does not give benzoic acid
as the major product is –
(1) cry I CH,OH-PC~C—,–4 ( Pyridinium ) c h loroch rom ate F1 _ Hindi+English ] (i) NaOCI {ii) H30+ 23 (i) NaOCI (ii) H30+ [ Contd … aglasem.com 82 Following limiting molar conductivities are given as 0 2 -1 \n(H2804) = x S cm mol 0 2 -1 “‘m(K2S04) = y S cm mol 0 2 -I “‘m(CH3COOK) = z S cm mol 0 CH ( 2 -1 ) 3COOH i6 ~ Am S cm mol -q· ~- (1) X – y + Z (3) X – y + 2 Z (x-y) (2) + z 2 (4) X + y + Z 83 “Q;r6 lJ ~ll” q;lft i3lftfft6 .:rT r6T cfll f.i”wrr –
[~ ~ i: ~ fu.r&.o,
R = 8.314JK-1 mol-1]
(1) 1.6 x 103 s-1 (2) 3.2 x 106 s-1
(3) 3.2 x 104 s-1 (4) 1.6 x 106 s-1
85 ~ Shiti-GRr!ch ~!l”rt\ilVf ~ T&T cfiT ~ 85
ffl q[ffl ~ ~ t –
X k -0.5 X k -1 (1) – = p (2) – = p
m m
x k 0.3
(3) – = p
m
(4) ~ = kp2.s
m
0 2 -1
“‘m(H2804) = x S cm mol
0 2 -1
“‘m(KzS04) = y S cm mol
0 2 -1
“‘m(CH3COOK) = z S cm mol
0
( Am in S cm 2m oC 1) for CH3COOH
will be –
(1) X – y + Z
(x-y)
(2) + z
2
(3) X – y + 2 Z (4) X + y + Z
A first order reaction has a rate constant of
2.303 x 1 o-3 s-l. The time required for
40 g of this reactant to reduce to 10 g will
be-
[Given that log10 2 = 0.3010]
(1) 2000 s (2) 602 s
(3) 230.3 s (4) 301 s
For a reaction, activation energy Ea= 0 and
the rate constant at 200 K is 1.6 x 106 s-1.
The rate constant at 400 K will be –
[Given that gas constant,
R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1]
(1) 1.6 x 103 s-1 (2) 3.2 x 106 s-1
(3) 3.2 x 104 s-1 (4) 1.6 x 106 s-1
The correct option representing a Freundlich
adsorption isotherm is –
X k -0.5 X k -1 (1) – = p (2) – = p
m m
x k 0.3 (3) – = p
m
X k 2.5 (4) – = p
m
86 ffi -ii’ ~ ~ ’11j’g'<Sic6llj i ? 86 Which of the following is paramagnetic ?
(1) Li2 (2) 0 2 (1) Li2 (2) 0 2
(3) N2 (4) H2 (3) N2 (4) H2
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 24 [ Contd …
aglasem.com
87 ~ ~ “iil1” ~ aif1ii:b4cb t me:r ~
ffi &lIT ~ fu;r ~ ~ t i – NH2 I (1) CH3 – C – CH2CH2CH3 I CH3 CH3 I (2) CH3 -C- CH-NH2 I I CH3 CH3 (3) CH3 – CH -NH- CH -CH3 I I CH3 CH3 CH2CH3 I (4) CH3 – CH2 – N – CH2CH3 88 mi’r-=rr r8r ~ ~/ij(‘clill~· ~cpe1″1i:b(UI ~ t ~ am (~) ffift i~ ? (1) m’i:FIT
(2) ~ (3) ~ ae:rT ~ Gl”IT e<‘c.111~· (4) ~’!TT
89 c£11c:lfl(~cb tlff ~ t ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ t
~ t Wf ~ ~ mfil t t –
(1) q(~ l.{“(rfli!l~?,(~(r(
(2) ~-N
(3) ii@’-11~’1
(4) ~-6 6

90 ~. “iil1″~cfTCJ’llri
cfe:rT~tir1TT – (1) ~R’lltr111l1 (2) ~ (3) W6fA (4) ~ F1 _ Hindi+English ] 25 87 The amine that reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to give an alkali insoluble product is – NH2 I (1) CH3 – C – CH2CH2CH3 I CH3 CH3 I (2) CH3 -C- CH-NH2 I I CH3 CH3 (3) CH3 – CH -NH- CH-CH3 I I CH3 CH3 CH2CH3 I (4) CH3 – CH2 – N – CH2CH3 88 Which structure(s) of proteins remain(s) intact during denaturation process ? (1) Secondary structure only (2) Tertiary structure only (3) Both secondary and tertiary structures (4) Primary structure only 89 The polymer that is used as a substitute for wool in making commercial fibres is – (1) polyacrylonitrile (2) Buna-N (3) melamine (4) nylon- 6, 6 90 The artificial sweetner stable at cooking temperature and does not provide calories is – ( 1) sucralose (3) saccharin (2) alitame ( 4) aspartame [ Contd … aglasem.com 91 1:%”,’f””{9’tAt~llro 91 crfBt”t-q-~~c61~ crf ABoI~Bl l~c61~:
ll1″‘1’11cl~9 ~ -m ‘W6’ffi l ?
(1) rA rA (-.=rr); 18 i (llro)
(2) rA i (-IT); 18 i (liro)
(3) I A i (-IT); 18 rB (-i:iro)
(4) JA JA (-;=rr); JB JB (liro)
92 1:% W~Tfij’f cCi” ~ ~ ~ ~ $r if T ffl 92 l lffiifif~ ir.f’r? (1) ~ ~ ii;- ~ ~ qfffi ~ (2) itm ~ ~. ~msmif
w~Tfij’f IDU ‘ITT ~ m
(3) itm ~ ~ ~ msm if oocrrm if ~-t’r
cfil:r IS!m i:ffef m
(4) 1:% ~ii;-~ ~ qfffi $r
In a marriage between male with blood group
A and female with blood group B, the
progeny had either blood group AB or B.
What could be the possible genotype of
parents?
(1) JA IA (Male) ; I8 i (Female)
(2) 1A i (Male) ; 18 i (Female)
(3) JA i (Male) ; 18 18 (Female)
(4) JA JA (Male) ; I8 I8 (Female)
A population of a species invades a new area.
Which of the following condition will lead
to Adaptive Radiation?
( 1) Area with many types of vacant habitats.
(2) Area with many habitats occupied by a
large number of species.
(3) Area with large number of habitats
having very low food supply.
(4) Area with a single type of vacant
habitat.
93 ~ ~ ~ Rbi!.lli:’icbc11 ~ ~ ~ f¾-511<:’icb
~ if ~ A, B ~ C cITT q~tllf.tl!, :
93 Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic
representation of the mechanism of hormone
action.
A
Response 1.
.u.
C
.u.
Physiological Response
ffi if -a ~ ~ ~ :
(1) A = ~ ~; B = m; C = -fucw:r
Tc6 (2) A = miA” ~; B = ~ AMP; C = ~ I l-tT•BI I tl cfj I aj cR1 (3) A=; B = ~11-fl•Blltl cblPkilcfe;
C = miA”
(4) A = miA” ~; B = m; C = ~
AMP
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 26
A
Response 1 .
.u.
C
.u.
Physiological Response
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) A= Steroid Hormone; B = Receptor;
C = Second Messenger
(2) A= Protein Hormone; B = Cyclic AMP;
C = Hormone-receptor Complex
(3) A = Steroid Hormone; B = Hormonereceptor
Complex; C = Protein
(4) A= Protein Hormone; B = Receptor;
C = Cyclic AMP
l Contd …
aglasem.com
94 1,f,’lq ~ ~ m«r mm i il’IT m~ ~ 94 Humans have acquired immune system that
r.fmTT i ~ ~{fil cfil PltiMii I~ d cfffilT i I ~ produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens.
~ ~ t ~ ~ ~ m«r ~mi Still innate immune system is present at the
~ ~ – time of birth because it
(1) ~ !.IIC[ifacfi ~ ffl~ Q@T i il’IT ‘l:f&fOT (1) has natural killer cells which can
~ i ~ -q~ ~ r.fiT fcr-mn cfi«f’r i phagocytose and destroy microbes.
(2) ~mffli I (2) provides passive immunity. ~”trfcr~TGrm-ITTi~t
(3) is very- specific and uses different
(3)
macrophages.
‘l:f~’3U cfiT ~ ~ i I
cim- t ~ ~ ffllqif (4) produces memory cells for mounting (4) fast secondary response. ii
95 ‘3ta:~qifqtr,=r~:
95 Select the incorrect statement regarding
inbreeding.
(1) ~ ‘3ffl: ~ ~ ~ cfiT cfj”q c6UIT
i ~ ‘3ffl: ~ \jllc:H-f l<Fl cfi”(dT i I
(1) Continued inbreeding reduces fertility
and leads to inbreeding depression.
(2) ‘3ffl: ~ )fli:l~l&1, ~: ~ ID’U ~
(2) Inbreeding depression can not be
~fc6.:rrilfT~ I
overcome by Out-crossing.
(3) ‘3ffl: ~ ~ ~ ‘q@c6. t ~
(3) Inbreeding helps in elimination of
~ ~ lITTIT i I deleterious alleles from the population.
(4) ~=rit~tfcrcl:;-m (4) Inbreeding is necessary to evolve a puret
~ ‘3lfi:f~<l”r.fi” i I line in any animal.
96 ~cfiT~fflt~ 96 A biocontrol agent to be a part of an
– integrated pest management should be (1) o/-1~ (1) narrow spectrum and symbiotic (2) w~Ttiff fcr~TGr o/.t -fR ~ ~ -q”{ ~ (2) species-specific and inactive on non- target organisms
(3) w~Ttiff fcr~ ~ ~ m ~ (3) species-specific and symbiotic
(4) ~~~ (4) free living and broad spectrum
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 27 [ Contd …
aglasem.com
aglasem.com

CuSO4 · 5H2O t m~ “lt:i;forcr, h=R” ~-mi- ~ iffl t6T tj”&TT wf’r –
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 1
75 The number of hydrogen bonded water
molecule(s) associated with
CuSO4 · 5H2O is –
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 1
76 ~ ~ c6l “li5f, ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ 76
m “ij°, Ni0_980 i:rr:rr Tfm 1 ~ ~ Ni2+ crm
Formula of nickel oxide with metal deficiency
defect in its crystal is Nio_9gO. The crystal
contains Ni2+ and Ni3+ ions. The fraction of
nickel existing as Ni2+ ions in the crystal is –
Ni3+ ~ i I ~ ~ Ni2+ ~ t ~ ~
c6Tl’.3lliTt- (l) 0.50 (2) 0.31 (3) 0.96 (4) 0.04 77 am~t ~ “ij” ~ ~ ~ q@ GJ” ~ Acrm B t ~ t ~otT ~ f.r:.r ~ u ctft.r-m c6~ -m’r t ? (1) LimixV=O,~TcrmP-q'”{ (2) A-A crm B-B t ffl i3@1T~ ~ ~. ’31” A-B ~an’ t ffl ffi cl’@ ~ ~$~m11T I (3) A-A crm B-B t ffl i3@1T~ ~ ~. ’31” A-B ~an’ t ffl ffi qffl ~ ~U~m1lll (4) Limix H = 0, ~ T crm P -q'”{ 78 ~ ~ . u’fo’tql’l4 cf;Tlffi;f-‘3l~T 0.02 tl ~
~ ~ c6T ~ ~ 1.2atm i err cf>T ~Tqi ~ m1lT – (1) 1.176 atm (3) 1.18 atm (2) 0.98 atm (4) 1.76 atm 79 Al3+/Al, Ag+/Ag, K+/K am cr3+/cr t fe’A 11-it lfFlqi ~ ~ ?61,liT: -1.66 V, 0.80 V, -2.93 V crm –0.74 V ~ I ~i3TT t i3lqtjlllcfi -mi:r&i cf>T ffl ~ ~ i – (1) K >Al> Ag> Cr (2) Al> K >Ag> Cr (3) Ag > Cr > Al > K (4) K >Al> Cr > Ag F1 _ Hindi+English ] 22 77 (1) 0.50 (2) 0.31 (3) 0.96 (4) 0.04 Which of the following statements is correct regarding a solution of two components A and B exhibiting positive deviation from ideal behaviour? (1) Limix V = 0 at constant T and P. (2) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are equal to those between A-B. (3) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are stronger than those between A-B. (4) Limix H = 0 at constant T and P. 78 In water saturated air, the mole fraction of water vapour is 0.02. If the total pressure of the saturated air is 1.2 atm, the partial pressure of dry air is – (1) 1.176 atm (2) 0.98 atm (3) 1.18 atm (4) 1.76 atm 79 The standard electrode potential ( E0 ) values of Al3+/Al, Ag+/Ag, K+/K and cr3+;cr are -1.66 V, 0.80 V, -2.93 V and -0.74 V, respectively. The correct decreasing order of reducing power of the metal is – (1) K >Al> Ag> Cr (2) Al > K > Ag > Cr (3) Ag > Cr > Al > K ( 4) K > Al > Cr > Ag [ Contd … aglasem.com 80 ~ ‘3l~Rb~, ~ m cf@ ~ ~ C cf~ D 80 T: i :
H 3C-CH2 -CH2 -O-C(CH3 )
3
HI ( a@rit<Pf°) C + D
~
(1) H 3C-CH2 -CH2 – I cJqr
HO-C(CH3)3
(2) H3C – CH2 – CH2 – OH oUT
HO-C(CH3 )
3
(3) H3C – CH2 – CH2 – I aqr
I-C(CH3 )3
(4) H 3C – CH2 – CH2 – OH om
I-C(CH3 )
3
The major products C and D formed in the
following reaction respectively are :
excess HI
~
C+D
(1) H 3C-CH2 -CH2 -I
and HO-C( CH3 )
3
(2) H 3C – CH2 – CH2 – OH
and HO-C(CH3 )
3
(3) H3C – CH2 – CH2 – I
and I- c( CH3 )
3
(4) H 3C- CH2 :– CH2 – OH
and I-C( CH3 )
3
The reaction that does not give benzoic acid
as the major product is –
(1) cry I CH,OH-PC~C—,–4 ( Pyridinium ) c h loroch rom ate F1 _ Hindi+English ] (i) NaOCI {ii) H30+ 23 (i) NaOCI (ii) H30+ [ Contd … aglasem.com 82 Following limiting molar conductivities are given as 0 2 -1 \n(H2804) = x S cm mol 0 2 -1 “‘m(K2S04) = y S cm mol 0 2 -I “‘m(CH3COOK) = z S cm mol 0 CH ( 2 -1 ) 3COOH i6 ~ Am S cm mol -q· ~- (1) X – y + Z (3) X – y + 2 Z (x-y) (2) + z 2 (4) X + y + Z 83 “Q;r6 lJ ~ll” q;lft i3lftfft6 .:rT r6T cfll f.i”wrr –
[~ ~ i: ~ fu.r&.o,
R = 8.314JK-1 mol-1]
(1) 1.6 x 103 s-1 (2) 3.2 x 106 s-1
(3) 3.2 x 104 s-1 (4) 1.6 x 106 s-1
85 ~ Shiti-GRr!ch ~!l”rt\ilVf ~ T&T cfiT ~ 85
ffl q[ffl ~ ~ t –
X k -0.5 X k -1 (1) – = p (2) – = p
m m
x k 0.3
(3) – = p
m
(4) ~ = kp2.s
m
0 2 -1
“‘m(H2804) = x S cm mol
0 2 -1
“‘m(KzS04) = y S cm mol
0 2 -1
“‘m(CH3COOK) = z S cm mol
0
( Am in S cm 2m oC 1) for CH3COOH
will be –
(1) X – y + Z
(x-y)
(2) + z
2
(3) X – y + 2 Z (4) X + y + Z
A first order reaction has a rate constant of
2.303 x 1 o-3 s-l. The time required for
40 g of this reactant to reduce to 10 g will
be-
[Given that log10 2 = 0.3010]
(1) 2000 s (2) 602 s
(3) 230.3 s (4) 301 s
For a reaction, activation energy Ea= 0 and
the rate constant at 200 K is 1.6 x 106 s-1.
The rate constant at 400 K will be –
[Given that gas constant,
R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1]
(1) 1.6 x 103 s-1 (2) 3.2 x 106 s-1
(3) 3.2 x 104 s-1 (4) 1.6 x 106 s-1
The correct option representing a Freundlich
adsorption isotherm is –
X k -0.5 X k -1 (1) – = p (2) – = p
m m
x k 0.3 (3) – = p
m
X k 2.5 (4) – = p
m
86 ffi -ii’ ~ ~ ’11j’g'<Sic6llj i ? 86 Which of the following is paramagnetic ?
(1) Li2 (2) 0 2 (1) Li2 (2) 0 2
(3) N2 (4) H2 (3) N2 (4) H2
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 24 [ Contd …
aglasem.com
87 ~ ~ “iil1” ~ aif1ii:b4cb t me:r ~
ffi &lIT ~ fu;r ~ ~ t i – NH2 I (1) CH3 – C – CH2CH2CH3 I CH3 CH3 I (2) CH3 -C- CH-NH2 I I CH3 CH3 (3) CH3 – CH -NH- CH -CH3 I I CH3 CH3 CH2CH3 I (4) CH3 – CH2 – N – CH2CH3 88 mi’r-=rr r8r ~ ~/ij(‘clill~· ~cpe1″1i:b(UI ~ t ~ am (~) ffift i~ ? (1) m’i:FIT
(2) ~ (3) ~ ae:rT ~ Gl”IT e<‘c.111~· (4) ~’!TT
89 c£11c:lfl(~cb tlff ~ t ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ t
~ t Wf ~ ~ mfil t t –
(1) q(~ l.{“(rfli!l~?,(~(r(
(2) ~-N
(3) ii@’-11~’1
(4) ~-6 6

90 ~. “iil1″~cfTCJ’llri
cfe:rT~tir1TT – (1) ~R’lltr111l1 (2) ~ (3) W6fA (4) ~ F1 _ Hindi+English ] 25 87 The amine that reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to give an alkali insoluble product is – NH2 I (1) CH3 – C – CH2CH2CH3 I CH3 CH3 I (2) CH3 -C- CH-NH2 I I CH3 CH3 (3) CH3 – CH -NH- CH-CH3 I I CH3 CH3 CH2CH3 I (4) CH3 – CH2 – N – CH2CH3 88 Which structure(s) of proteins remain(s) intact during denaturation process ? (1) Secondary structure only (2) Tertiary structure only (3) Both secondary and tertiary structures (4) Primary structure only 89 The polymer that is used as a substitute for wool in making commercial fibres is – (1) polyacrylonitrile (2) Buna-N (3) melamine (4) nylon- 6, 6 90 The artificial sweetner stable at cooking temperature and does not provide calories is – ( 1) sucralose (3) saccharin (2) alitame ( 4) aspartame [ Contd … aglasem.com 91 1:%”,’f””{9’tAt~llro 91 crfBt”t-q-~~c61~ crf ABoI~Bl l~c61~:
ll1″‘1’11cl~9 ~ -m ‘W6’ffi l ?
(1) rA rA (-.=rr); 18 i (llro)
(2) rA i (-IT); 18 i (liro)
(3) I A i (-IT); 18 rB (-i:iro)
(4) JA JA (-;=rr); JB JB (liro)
92 1:% W~Tfij’f cCi” ~ ~ ~ ~ $r if T ffl 92 l lffiifif~ ir.f’r? (1) ~ ~ ii;- ~ ~ qfffi ~ (2) itm ~ ~. ~msmif
w~Tfij’f IDU ‘ITT ~ m
(3) itm ~ ~ ~ msm if oocrrm if ~-t’r
cfil:r IS!m i:ffef m
(4) 1:% ~ii;-~ ~ qfffi $r
In a marriage between male with blood group
A and female with blood group B, the
progeny had either blood group AB or B.
What could be the possible genotype of
parents?
(1) JA IA (Male) ; I8 i (Female)
(2) 1A i (Male) ; 18 i (Female)
(3) JA i (Male) ; 18 18 (Female)
(4) JA JA (Male) ; I8 I8 (Female)
A population of a species invades a new area.
Which of the following condition will lead
to Adaptive Radiation?
( 1) Area with many types of vacant habitats.
(2) Area with many habitats occupied by a
large number of species.
(3) Area with large number of habitats
having very low food supply.
(4) Area with a single type of vacant
habitat.
93 ~ ~ ~ Rbi!.lli:’icbc11 ~ ~ ~ f¾-511<:’icb
~ if ~ A, B ~ C cITT q~tllf.tl!, :
93 Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic
representation of the mechanism of hormone
action.
A
Response 1.
.u.
C
.u.
Physiological Response
ffi if -a ~ ~ ~ :
(1) A = ~ ~; B = m; C = -fucw:r
Tc6 (2) A = miA” ~; B = ~ AMP; C = ~ I l-tT•BI I tl cfj I aj cR1 (3) A=; B = ~11-fl•Blltl cblPkilcfe;
C = miA”
(4) A = miA” ~; B = m; C = ~
AMP
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 26
A
Response 1 .
.u.
C
.u.
Physiological Response
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) A= Steroid Hormone; B = Receptor;
C = Second Messenger
(2) A= Protein Hormone; B = Cyclic AMP;
C = Hormone-receptor Complex
(3) A = Steroid Hormone; B = Hormonereceptor
Complex; C = Protein
(4) A= Protein Hormone; B = Receptor;
C = Cyclic AMP
l Contd …
aglasem.com
94 1,f,’lq ~ ~ m«r mm i il’IT m~ ~ 94 Humans have acquired immune system that
r.fmTT i ~ ~{fil cfil PltiMii I~ d cfffilT i I ~ produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens.
~ ~ t ~ ~ ~ m«r ~mi Still innate immune system is present at the
~ ~ – time of birth because it
(1) ~ !.IIC[ifacfi ~ ffl~ Q@T i il’IT ‘l:f&fOT (1) has natural killer cells which can
~ i ~ -q~ ~ r.fiT fcr-mn cfi«f’r i phagocytose and destroy microbes.
(2) ~mffli I (2) provides passive immunity. ~”trfcr~TGrm-ITTi~t
(3) is very- specific and uses different
(3)
macrophages.
‘l:f~’3U cfiT ~ ~ i I
cim- t ~ ~ ffllqif (4) produces memory cells for mounting (4) fast secondary response. ii
95 ‘3ta:~qifqtr,=r~:
95 Select the incorrect statement regarding
inbreeding.
(1) ~ ‘3ffl: ~ ~ ~ cfiT cfj”q c6UIT
i ~ ‘3ffl: ~ \jllc:H-f l<Fl cfi”(dT i I
(1) Continued inbreeding reduces fertility
and leads to inbreeding depression.
(2) ‘3ffl: ~ )fli:l~l&1, ~: ~ ID’U ~
(2) Inbreeding depression can not be
~fc6.:rrilfT~ I
overcome by Out-crossing.
(3) ‘3ffl: ~ ~ ~ ‘q@c6. t ~
(3) Inbreeding helps in elimination of
~ ~ lITTIT i I deleterious alleles from the population.
(4) ~=rit~tfcrcl:;-m (4) Inbreeding is necessary to evolve a puret
~ ‘3lfi:f~<l”r.fi” i I line in any animal.
96 ~cfiT~fflt~ 96 A biocontrol agent to be a part of an
– integrated pest management should be (1) o/-1~ (1) narrow spectrum and symbiotic (2) w~Ttiff fcr~TGr o/.t -fR ~ ~ -q”{ ~ (2) species-specific and inactive on non- target organisms
(3) w~Ttiff fcr~ ~ ~ m ~ (3) species-specific and symbiotic
(4) ~~~ (4) free living and broad spectrum
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 27 [ Contd …
aglasem.com
aglasem.com

97 ffi “If “6” ~ cblist~cb ~ q;r ~ 97 cR:qi t ? Which of the following organic compounds is the main constituent of Lecithin ? (1) cbl(i!R.(l(il (2) q, I l-TTOT ~:ll~ ffl ii (4) ‘3tcT:ll~ l6″ ~ ljjjd <~4:ti~ qf~ c:!IT46\Tlltl cfiJ:fmffii° I
102 izy.t; ~ IDU isi(il’f_clr.b f.i”:ll~ ~ “isllq ll”c:ITWf ID’U
~tcITTr.flflmt?
(1) ‘3tcT:llcffi-f WIBT
(2) ~ c61″ ~ wrcrr
(3) ~:llcRf,’f WRIT
(4) ~ ~
103 ~ ~ $” ~ ~ (tl,fd,i11ll1Wf ~ t m
SA “Ila tl- ~ qi:fi< i:6T ffl cfll1′ cf>clT i ? (1) ~SAfcrqqc!il”aR~clcfi
~<61:&6d’Tt° I
(2) SA “Ila if ~ c61” q{ ~ ifm i I
(3) SA “Ila if ~ c61” q{ ~ ffl i I
(4) ~ SA “Ila tl- ~ ~ % ‘l’ll ~
fcrqq ~ <61: ~ i I
104 tic: t~ ~ ~ffl
if ~ ~ fcrll~ ,ir:s(il” i3’a’c6 ~ ~TIR clcfi ~
~ “ITTffi tITT 0.1 m ~ ~ <61: ~ i I ~ ~
t ID’U ‘
(1) 1rffl 3i4:tili”lt1 ~ if ~llT ~ ‘1J@T i
(2) ~ 1{11IB: ft<ffi m “iif@ t I
(3) “”{c@ ~ if “WcrllT qi””{ ~ i
(4) ~ ~= • m “ijf@ i
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 29
101 Select the correct statement.
(1) Inspiration occurs when atmospheric
pressure is less than intrapulmonary
pressure.
(2) Expiration is initiated due to contraction
of diaphragm.
(3) Expiration occurs due to external
intercostal muscles.
(4) Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than
the atmospheric pressure during
inspiration.
102 The maximum volume of air a person can
breathe in after a forced expiration is known
as :
(1) Inspiratory Capacity
(2) Total Lung Capacity
(3) Expiratory Capacity
( 4) Vital Capacity
103 All the components of the nodal tissue are
autoexcitable. Why does the SA node act as
the normal pacemaker ?
104
(1) Only SA node can convey the action
potential to the other components.
(2) SA node has the highest rate of
depolarisation.
(3) SA node has the lowest rate of
depolarisation.
(4) SA node is the only component to
generate the threshold potential.
A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the
lower comer of the right atrium, close to
Atria-ventricular septum, delays the spreading
of impulses to heart apex for about 0.1 sec.
This delay allows –
(1) blood to enter pulmonary arteries.
(2) the atria to empty completely.
(3) blood to enter aorta.
(4) the ventricles to empty completely.
[Contd …

105 ~ l{T’J!l~’1’i c6l” ffl ffi ~ “ffl~ ~ ~
~qjf’q.:r,:f~: (a) ~q.:i cta’i.=gf¾q\l:I (i) DNA “&al c6l” ~ (h) ~q.:i Q,<:t«l~qv:1 (ii) ‘Jfl-1lfticb DNA ~ 11\ ~ c6l” ~ ( c) DNA ~ (iii) DNA c6l” fcl”
~-q-{~
(d) Tag q1i:r1″IJ.1{“:l (iv) DNA t -3ia -a
c6l” ~ (1) (a)-(iv), (h)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) ( a)-(ii), (h )-(iv), ( c )-(i), ( d)-(iii) (3) (a)-(iii), (h )-(i), ( c )-(iv), ( d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) 106 ~ pBR 322 11\ ~ en 1,1fu-i\feicb ~
(1) i:Ml {“l~P-ii:bltil ~ ~s:,lfl 1~#1″11
(2) ~s:,lfll~#l”l-1 ~ t11J.11~fB1
(3) ctfcifu~1 ~ ~s:,lfll~cki1″11
( 4) ctfcifu~1 i:i:ci i:Ml <“l~PlcbT(il 107 R”til” ~ IDU M ~ -a ~ ~ t i¥fq ~ qjf ~ffl ~ ~ i – (1) ~ (2) i¥fq ~ (3) (lll’ll’i~ q1 (4) (llll!) lql~ ~t”it 108 J.1if11$1fl ~ – ~rr ~ ~ ~ -tt “ft~1 ~ m ~ ~ m ~aft qjf ~Tcf>R qffflf i
~ ~ ~ ~iffi “cbT I ~ ~ et)- f~.q1fei~
cf>$(‘illa’I i-
( 1) mITTFr ~
(2) (3) ~ l½,fl~fl~·<‘.. (4) q(Ncblfl:a1 109 ~ ~ ~ fflftN iJfJq/$16 t T t cfiRUT
‘lTITcf et)- ffiT6T ~ c6I” iJl1t1&.ll ~ ~ c6l”
~mi I
(1) ~ ~ffl ~
(2) ~~ (3) w ~ ~ (4) 3flcfIB ~ ~ F1 _ Hindi+English ] 30 10S (a) (b) (c) (d) Match the following enzymes with their functions : Restriction (i) joins the DNA endonuclease fragments Restriction (ii) extends primers exonuclease on genomic DNA template DNA ligase (iii) cuts DNA at specific position Tag polymerase (iv) removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA Select the correct option from the following : (1) ( a)-(iv ), (h )-(iii), ( c )-(i), ( d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) 106 The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR 322 are for (1) Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline (2) Tetracycline and Kanamycin (3) Ampicillin and Tetracycline (4) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol 107 Exploitation of bioresources of a nation by multinational companies without authorization from the concerned country is referred to as – (1) Bioethics (2) Biowar (3) Bioweapon (4) Biopiracy 108 Carnivorous animals – lions and leopards, occupy the same niche but lions predate mostly larger animals and leopards take smaller ones. This mechanism of competition is referred to as – (1) Resource partitioning (2) Competitive exclusion (3) Character displacement ( 4) Altruism 109 Decline in the population of Indian native fishes due to introduction of Clarias gariepinus in river Yamuna can be categorised as (1) Over exploitation (2) Alien species invasion (3) Co-extinction (4) Habitat fragmentation [ Contd … aglasem.com 110 Pl+-i~Rsrn ctm q;,-~ “fi”El” ii;- qj””{l” ~
“q;T’tl
(2) ~
(3) o!:R<6 l{cbl~’11a4
(4) ~ltlrlfl:i~
112 “l{c6 ~ ~ lf ~-m ~ ~ t ~ J;f]1:@:
~it;~q;)~t – (1) ~ (2) ~ (3) ~ (4) ~ 113 m ~ffif ~an q;) ffi t m~ ~ ~ ~ ~ q;,- ‘qi=1
(c) ~ ~ (iii) ~ ~man lf
~ ii;- ftl:rrq cm-
~ t ~
~’tf~t I
( d) iWITTf~ ~ (iv) ~ ~m’3if ii;-
~· ~~
1lffi q;) ~ BqR
~Tfttcftfi1al i I
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 31
110 Match the following genera with their
respective phylum :
(a) Ophiura (i) Mollusca
(b) Physalia (ii) Platyhelminthes
(c) Pinctada (iii) Echinodermata
(d) Planaria (iv) Coelenterata
Select the correct option :
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
111 Which of the following animals are true
coelomates with bilateral symmetry ?
(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Annelids
(3) Adult Echinoderms
(4) Aschelminthes
112 The contrasting characteristics generally in a
pair used for identification of animals in
Taxonomic Key are referred to as :
113
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) Doublet (2) Alternate
(3) Lead (4) Couplet
Match the following cell structure with its
characteristic feature :
Tight junctions (i) Cement
neighbouring
cells together to
form sheet
Adhering (ii) Transmit
junctions information
through chemical
to another cells
Gap junctions (iii) Establish a
barrier to prevent
leakage of fluid
across epithelial
cells
Synaptic (iv) Cytoplasmic
junctions channels to
facilitate
communication
between adjacent
cells
Select correct option from the following :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
[ Contd …

114 ~ if cCFl m cfi~ ~ i ?
c1) ~ ~ ~ ~, faefl’cl{l ~ ~ m
if~itcftt1
(2) lfNT R!efl’cli;;2. t ~ ~liW if ~ i3la1li~ mR t I (3) faefl’cl?_2. if itcft i ~ t!!ll~ctl ~ ~ ~ ~ ‘3lfucfi itcft i I (4) ~ w:lt °rtfu -n:: fa(il’cli;;_2. t ~ ~ ~ m if ~ M i 1 115 ~ mcft ffl”[qIT if ~ ffl”JcITTTT ~ ~ if~ t ? (1) ~ ~ (2) W-11cfll?.I (3) (l?li:f>folcfll ( 4) l II tr’l1H.i 116 ~if~ ~t.•ti1h~ct ei,~r.f>s::<41 ti<‘cl11 ~ ‘llliffl c6T ~ t ? (1) rRNA (2) tRNA (3) mi-{ ~liffl (4) mRNA 117 ~ \jf\q ~ ~ 70 s (l~G!l~11’1 ~ i ~ ~ if -e- ~ -e- ~ ~ ~ ~ t ? (1) fu ~ cfiT DNA ’11T ei,~tl?.1 mRtfr if ~ ~ i I (2) fu ~ c6T ~ DNA ’11T m:iA” mi-{ t ~ mcrr i I (3) ~ ~ cfiT DNA ’11T mi-{ cITTc t mq ircrr i I (4) fu ~ cfiT ~ ‘1″l DNA I 118 ’31~ ~-It qJi~ ~ ~ ~m-m if (1) ~ ~ -tt” ~ if it.{ff.~. -tt” +TT5IT ~itcfti I (2) ~ ~ -tl” ~ if i’r.l:ff.~- -tl” +TT5IT ‘i:.ITt ~ itcft i I (3) i’r.l:ff.~- -tt” lTT?fl Wfq; ffllcfif -tt” S ~ t ~Mi I (4) ~ ~ -tt” ~ if i’r.t:ff.~- -tt” +TT5IT WRfMi F1 Hindi+English ] 32
114 Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT?
( 1) A pair of spermatheca is present in the
6th segn1ent of female cockroach.
(2) Female cockroach possesses sixteen
ovarioles in the ovaries.
(3) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic vision with
less sensitivity and more resolution.
(4) A mushroom-shaped gland is present in
the 6th_ 7th abdominal segments of male
cockroach.
115 Which of the following cell organelles is
present in the highest number in secretory
cells?
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Lysosomes
(3) Mitochondria
( 4) Golgi complex
116 Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in
nucleus are the site for active synthesis of
(1) rRNA (2) tRNA.
(3) protein synthesis (4) m.RNA
117 Which of the following nucleic acids is
present in an organism having 70 S ribosomes
only?
(1) Double stranded DNA enclosed in
nuclear membrane
(2) Double stranded circular DNA with
histone proteins
(3) Single stranded DNA with protein coat
(4) Double stranded circular naked DNA
118 After meiosis I, the resultant daughter cells
have
(1) same amount of DNA in comparison to
haploid gamete.
(2) four times the amount of DNA in
comparison to haploid gamete.
(3) same amount of DNA as in the parent
cell in S phase.
( 4) twice the amount of DNA in comparison
to haploid gamete.
[ Contd …
aglasem.com
119 m ~ ~ qjtr-f ~ i ?
(1) IUDs “tf!TT~T”-1″ 1f ~iffi t ‘i=f~ 1f ~
~fl
(2) ITJDs gn-1c:bu111 cnT “”{Jqj taT f I
(3) IUDs q;) ~ ~ ~ t ~ ~ m ~ iffier .,tf ~ ,
(4) IUDs t:lll–11.:lld: -3q1..lia1c:bai IDU ~ tl” ~
ij’f@T f I
120 m ~ cCR -e- <ft.,~ -urr = ~ iWTI’ q;J”Q”m?
(1) AIDS~ ~:dr~-~
(2) <ffln:tfa”-ldl ~ AIDS
(3) “Af7rq; ~ ~ it~-~ (4) ~f’fjR,i(i ~ ~ -qftlfCf 121 ~iffi t ~ ~ t6T qq;=r ~ I (1) g•1-tcb1J”1’1’1 ➔ ~ ➔ ~ ~,1id(OI ➔ ~ ➔ qj)fllcfil ~ (~) ➔ fflTcbT ~ ➔ ~ ~ (2) 9,11-tcb1J’1’1’1 ➔ ~ ~11id(01 ➔ fufrfl” ➔ ~ ➔ ffllqif ~ ➔ fflTcbT ~(~)➔
(3) 9,1l-tcb1J’1’1’1 ➔ ~ ~,1id(OI ➔ ftrt4T
➔ ~ ➔ ~TcbT ~ (~) ➔
fflTcbT ~ ➔ ~ ~
(4) 9,•l-tcbu1’1’1 ➔ ~ ‘B’-ll1id( 01 ➔ ftrt4T
➔ ~ ➔ fflTcbT ~ (~) ➔
~ ~ ➔ q;)fllc6T ~
122 m 1f ~ ~ ~m:JqOT ~ ~ TN if”ffl
fflcffi ~ t ~ ‘3’d (&14’1 i ?
(1) 1:t1’f ¾”1c.’ffu1 (2) f{~fcR.:11
(3) ~ (4) !l,~Pefc::1
119 Which of the following is a correct
statement?
(1) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms
in the uterus.
(2) IUDs suppress gametogenesis.
(3) IUDs once inserted need not be
replaced.
(4) IUDs are generally inserted by the user
herself.
120 Which of the following sexually transmitted
diseases do not specifically affect
reproductive organs ?
(1) AIDS and Hepatitis B
(2) Chlamydiasis and AIDS
(3) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
(4) Syphilis and Genital herpes
121 Select the correct sequence of events.
(1) Gametogenesis ➔ Syngamy ➔
Gamete transfer ➔ Zygote ➔ Cell
division (Cleavage) ➔ Cell
differentiation ➔ Organogenesis.
(2) Gametogenesis ➔ Gamete transfer ➔
Syngamy ➔ Zygote ➔ Cell
differentiation ➔ Cell division
(Cleavage) ➔ Organogenesis.
(3) Gametogenesis ➔ Gamete transfer ➔
Syngamy ➔ Zygote ➔ Cell division
(Cleavage) ➔ Cell differentiation ➔
Organogenesis.
(4) Gametogenesis ➔ Gamete transfer ➔
Syngamy ➔ Zygote ➔ Cell division
(Cleavage) ➔ Organogenesis ➔ Cell
differentiation.
122 Which of the following hormones is
responsible for both the milk ejection reflex
and the foetal ejection reflex ?
(1) Oxytocin (2) Relaxin
(3) Estrogen (4) Prolactin
123 oocfq ~ rtf ‘Q’rcr ~ ~ ~ ¥”cbT t6l ~ .,t\’ 123 m~- No new follicles develop in the luteal phase
of the menstrual cycle because :
c1) ‘Q’rcr ~ 1f LH c6T m 13m mill i I
(2) ‘Q’rcr ~ 1f FSH ~ LH ~ t6l m r.filf
milli I
(3) ~ t ~ ¥cfi ‘3m~T”-l” 1f ~ ~ i I
( 4) ‘Q’rcr ~ 1f FSH t6l m 13m mill i I
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 33
(1) LH levels are high in the luteal phase.
(2) Both FSH and LH levels are low in the
luteal phase.
(3) Follicles do not remain in the ovary after
ovulation.
( 4) FSH levels are high in the luteal phase.
[ Contd …

124 \jll(-?;i”efp:.11 -q’ ~T~ ~ \llq(1@.fi $ ~-q’ en{
~i I ~ WfiIT $ ~ q;) ~ ~ – (1) ‘qffi mIB (2)
(3) ~ ~
(4) 125 ~-I-q’fe:qc6l~ – II$~
$W~~fi~cfil’q”l:Fl” ~I «f1l – I (a) XX-XO “fefi1f f.rm-(UT iffi,q I fel f¼ (b) XX-XY “fefi1f f.rm-(UT Rb ,Q I fel fu ( C) cblftq’l~l~q-45 ( d) ZW-ZZ “fefi1f f.rm-(UT Rf>,q I fcl fu (iii) ~ (iv) 11ro =ti1-1~g~,1-1-cb-a1 (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) 126 ffi DNA$~ &TU~ mRNA c6l ffi1l q,q,mTTT? 3′ ATGCATGCATGCATG 5′ 5′ TACGTACGTACGTAC 3′ (1) 3′ UACGUACGUACGUAC 5′ (2) 5′ AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3′ (3) 3′ AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5′ (4) 5′ UACGUACGUACGUAC 3′ 124 In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have evolved to share many similar characteristics. This type of evolution may be referred to as – (1) Cyclical Evolution (2) Convergent Evolution (3) Adaptive Radiation (4) Divergent Evolution 125 Match the items of Column – I with Column – II: (a) (b) (c) (d) Column – I Column – II XX-XO method (i) Turner’s of Sex syndrome Determination XX-XY method (ii) Female of Sex heterogametic Determination Karyotype-45 (iii) Grasshopper ZW-ZZ method (iv) Female of Sex homo gametic Determination Select the correct option from the following : (1) (a)-(iii), (b )-(iv), ( c )-(i), ( d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b )-(ii), ( c )-(i), ( d)-(iii) (3) (a)-(ii), (b )-(iv), ( c )-(i), ( d)-(iii) ( 4) (a)-(i), (b )-(iv), ( c )-(ii), ( d)-(iii) 126 What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA ? 3′ ATGCATGCATGCATG 5′ TEMPLATE STRAND 5′ TACGTACGTACGTAC 3′ CODING STRAND (1) 3′ UACGUACGUACGUAC 51 (2) 5′ AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3′ (3) 3′ AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5′ (4) 5′ UACGUACGUACGUAC 3′ 127 f.r-i:.:r RNA q’fo”111-1h11 cfiT ffl ~ ~ $ 127 m~l3ll(c6f’f.f,Q’-f~: Match the following RNA polymerases with their transcribed products : (a) RNA qTl.’1″11-11’11 I (b) RNA qTl.’1″11-11’11 II (c) RNA qTl.’1″11-11\l’J III (i) tRNA (ii) rRNA (iii) hnRNA f.r-i:.,-q’; (1) (a)-(ii), (b )-(iii), ( C )-(i) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i) (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii) F1 _ Hindi+English ] 34 (a) RNA polymerase I (i) tRNA (b) RNA polymerase II (ii) rRNA ( c) RNA polymerase III (iii) hnRNA Select the correct option from the following : (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) (2) (a)-(iii), (b )-(ii), ( c )-(i) (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii) [ Contd … aglasem.com 128 ~lfCl;~t-qprrq;Jffiq;rm”ij”~q;-{ (a) (b) (c) (d) q;JI ™ “Cff~T c6l (i) ~ (ifqll”[ q;J ffl e4)q(‘4 ~ (ii) q;J
~ ~ ™ “Cff~T ~ (iii) ~ ~ ~ anmT ~ iiRif q;J Pit1′-lisi’l!i ~
~ (iv) ‘3lTWf, ~ T.;ct r.1,14~c1, ~ q;J ffl
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
129 ~ – I~ ~ T(l:1; ~ q;J ffi – II t- ~
tm~’3frrq;J~
~I
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
‘ffl’f – I «N – II
1:l1s1e1 (i) ~&.Rt~ ~ !l1 iJ ~ &,fgq I (ii) ~ ~ (iii)
ft’ffi &ltilchtiil~ (iv) (1) (a)-(iv), (b )-(iii), ( c )-(ii), ( d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) 130 f;r:.r ~ ~ ~ fcr: ~rn t- ~ ~
~ ~ fcr~)lf ~ t° ~ ‘3’d <&l<fl ~ ?
(1) ~ffif{qt,j ~ ~ ~
(2) ~ ~f{e i:;ct ~
(3) ~~ ( 4) -wr r.!Mlr.firct tJ;ct ‘3WR 001:fi ~ F1 _ Hindi+English ] 35 128 Match the following parts of a nephron with (a) (b) (c) (d) their function : Descending limb (i) Reabsorption of of Henle’s loop salts only Proximal (ii) Reabsorption of convoluted tubule water only Ascending limb (iii) Conditional of Henle’s loop reabsorption of sodium ions and water Distal convoluted (iv) Reabsorption of tubule ions, water and organic nutrients Select the correct option from the following : (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) 129 Match the items in Column – I with those in Column – II : (a) (b) (c) (d) 130 Column – I Column – II Podocytes (i) Crystallised oxalates Protonephridia (ii) Annelids Nephridia (iii) Amphioxus Renal calculi (iv) Filtration slits Select the correct option from the following : (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) Which of the following receptors are specifically responsible for maintenance of balance of body and posture ? ( 1) Tectorial membrane and macula (2) Crista ampullaris and macula (3) Basilar membrane and otoliths ( 4) Hair cells and organ of corti [ Contd … aglasem.com 131 ffi if ~ qi~ ~ ~ t ? c1) ~Tfficfil ~ fuif mm i iiR ~ cCi-
u~m if ~ t ~ ‘3i:1 (~I~ ~ % I
(2) ~ f{q,{llcffi q cfiT ~ ~ % i3fR ~ ~ !.!Rl~lll t I (3) ~lff if ~ ~ mtR=r ~ \jfT ~ ~ ~ cfTffi frnrr ft!.1-ir.Fl fl ~ if mm %1 (4) ‘6ffllll ?.6T “”{llf ~Tc6Ti3TT t ~ -e~ r.Alc:6~”1 ~ ~Tllll \3w:R $wf ~ In@” t1 132 f;r:.f~q;)-tm~ i3fR fi ~ cfiT ~ ~ I (a) ~ ~ (i) ‘3tp; t qiJTffl -qcf (b) “c:bGJff ~ ~llc:bPl~ t lfaJ (ii) ~-qct ~ t- -i:re:i- (iii) ~ t lfaJ (iv) ~ i3fR ~ t- -i:re:i- (1) (a)-(iv), (b(-(ii), ( c )-(iii), ( d)-(i) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) 133 ffi if ~ “U1T ~ffl ~ % ? (1) ~ (2) 1TTiR: (3) ~ ~ ( 4) ir~
134 ~ ~T, ~ ffl “fl1l”ll” -qcf f.fm “fl1l”ll” if ~
-e- ~ fffi,:rr~fuirill ~ mm i ?
(1) ~”!ffu
(2) -q-~’q ~ m
(3) (4) ~ m 135 ffi if~ “&”~TT ~ ffl cfiT ~ ~t-~t~?
(1) 3lfu.T if Ca2+ m if cfil{I”
(2) “”{cRf if Ca2+ ~ cCI- ~
(3) ~ ~llftl-1 D t m if cfil{I”
( 4) “”{cRf if Ca2+ ~ if cfil{I”
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 36
131 Which of the following statements is not
correct ?
132
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) Rods are very sensitive and contribute
to daylight vision.
(2) In the knee-jerk reflex, stimulus is the
stretching of muscle and response is its
contraction.
(3) An action potential in an axon does not
move backward because the segment
behind is in a refractory phase.
( 4) Depolarisation of hair cells of cochlea
results in the opening of the
mechanically gated potassium-ion
channels.
Match the following joints with the bones
involved :
Gliding joint (i) Between carpal
and metacarpal
of thumb
Hinge joint (ii) Between Atlas
and Axis
Pivot joint (iii) Between the
Carpals
Saddle joint (iv) Between Humerus
and Ulna
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) (a)-(iv), (b(-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
133 Which of the following diseases is an autoimmune
disorder ?
(1) Osteoporosis (2) Gout
(3) Myasthenia gravis (4) Arthritis
134 Artificial light, extended work-time and
reduced sleep-time disrupt the activity of –
( 1) Adrenal gland
(2) Posterior pituitary gland
(3) Thymus gland
(4) Pineal gland
135 Which of the following conditions will
stimulate parathyroid gland to release
parathyroid hormone ?
(1) Fall in bone ca+2 levels
(2) Rise in blood ca+2 levels
(3) Fall in active Vitamin D levels
(4) Fall in blood ca+2 levels
[ Contd …

136 . cf?r-fti..Ti? c1) ~ ~4’1ctG11~’1,· -e- ~ \jj(iqq,jj~cfi mm t-1 c2) tft~’3&fuf~enil’~
(-1~4’il(4’i t ~ ii’ ?6Tlf m ~I
(3) ~’3ltRt~mtft;rQ; qig3IBRlctr
~ i@’r ii (4) ~ (~ ~), l{l{i¼ii’li~’1″)1 ~ ~ $} mt I 137 iitA ~ ~m ‘mfi cCt- ii’ i3frr fcwr
oiJ 1a,q,ri· t ~ mm i ?
(1) ~ Ictril’
t ~ ~ t ffl
(2) ~It ii’ fciGllalll ~ ~ ~ 131J101q’:lll· t ffl (3) ~ l ~ii’ fciGllalll ~
ttffl (4) ~IcfiTlf t ~ a:r41°1q~1· t ffl 138 1 (l’1tl~-t ~• ~ ~ c€t ~ ffi t ~ ~fc6m”Gl’@li? (1) ?,;l~l{fe(rti)(rl(-l[{s(-1 (2) “it.”(ff .-o;. (3) ‘3ffi.”(ff.-o;. (4) 11TiR 139 Pl”‘lftiif©a ii’ ~ ~ M 1)’ ~ t ~ ~c6T~”ti1″WJT”ftri? (1) ~ IDU maT i I (2) -o;.fr.”QT. r6t ~ ~ i I
(3) ~ ~ t ~ 00 i I
(4) q”ll-f””lfucr I
140 f.l¥.tRrif©a ii’ ~ ~-m ~ ~ t ~ c6T
’11~{1’11’1 1)’ ~ q;rcrr i ?
(1) fe.lmJff1ew1 (2) 11$~1<-nl-fl-ne (3) ➔1$~MiR< (4) ➔J$~)q,)cbe F1 _ Hindi+English ] 37 136 Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes in that – (1) their association with apoenzymes is transient. (2) they can serve as co-factors in a number of enzyme – catalyzed reactions. (3) they require metal ions for their activity. (4) they (prosthetic groups) are tightly bound to apoenzymes. 137 Crossing over takes place between which chromatids and in which stage of the cell cycle? (1) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I. (2) Non-sister chromatids of nonhomologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I. (3) Non-sister chromatids of nonhomologous chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I. (4) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I. 138 “Ramachandran plot” is used to confirm the structure of (1) Triacylglycerides (2) DNA (3) RNA (4) Proteins 139 Which of the following is not a feature of active transport of solutes in plants ? (1) Occurs through membranes (2) Requires ATP (3) Occurs against concentration gradient (4) Non-selective 140 Which of the following bacteria reduce nitrate in soil into nitrogen ? (1) Thiobacillus (2) Nitrosomonas (3) Nitrobacter ( 4) Nitrococcus [Contd … aglasem.com 141 “iffi ~~TT ~ ~ ~ c6l” fu~TT ~ m1l’r ~ ~ ~ ~”fq;f cITT ~ ljjqq(lfj(U~ ~ ~ 1:1sfT ;j=[@l i ? (1) ~ cfiT ~ ~lcf;T t ‘3Rr c6l” i3lR irTf I (2) iJTTrr cfiT ~ M ~ fu~TT 1)’ .rnf irTf I (3) ~ cfiT ~ Gl.:rr fu~TTaTT 1)’ m I ( 4) iJTTrf cfiT ~ ~lcf;T ~ ~ c6l” i3TI\ irTf I 142 ~ ~ ~~ ~~#H ~ cJr3I” ({.it.~.) fflfuIBooi? (1) ‘il~ilcfi~ ~ Pli..iR<tful a 1)’
~cfiT~qjffi~?
(1) fu-iisl{~l’1 (2) fll~ilcbt~.fi.:i
(3) ~ (4) ~
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 38
144
145
146
(1) Phosphoenol pyruvate
(2) Rubisco
(3) Oxaloacetic acid
( 4) Phosphoglyceric acid
Removal of shoot tips is a very useful
technique to boost the production of tealeaves.
This is because :
(1) Effect of auxins is removed and growth
of lateral buds is enhanced.
(2) Gibberellins delay senescence ofleaves.
(3) Gibberellins prevent bolting and are
inactivated.
( 4) Auxins prevent leaf drop at early stages.
One scientist cultured Cladophora in a
suspension of Azotobacter and illuminated
the culture by splitting light through a prism.
He observed that bacteria accumulated mainly
in the region of :
( 1) Orange and yellow light
(2) Blue and red light
(3) Violet and green light
( 4) Indigo and green light
In order to increase the yield of sugarcane
crop, which of the following plant growth
regulators should be sprayed ?
(1) Gibberellins (2) Cytokinins
(3) Ethylene ( 4) Auxins
[ Contd …

157 f.:1- .. .:iRrff©ct -q· “lt qjl-1-·~n qjef,; ICBN
(~.m:~.~.) ~ t ~ t ?
(1) ~$11Ptc6 .f1lil “c6l ~ 1l fuffi uf@T i ‘3fi1:
~fcrrm I (2) cf~T -fllf ~ iifTfu -fllf “c6l m af~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ulFTT ~ I (3) ~ ~ ~s11Ptr6 ~ c!il hiifchct fco1rr
ijfAT~I
( 4) ~ -mfcT cfiT ~ ci~T -fllf iffl””{ ~ ~ iifTfu
~i I 158 i:r~-an’ i!/ “tJJ1RiJ ~ frT (~ “r6li”£ ~) ~ ill1q ~mart~: (1) ffliR c6q’q -m-cr ~ s31R.”(ff.~. mcrT i I (2) ffliR c6q’q -m-cr ~ ~-~–0:- mcrT i I (3) ~ f’~R.(‘l~~mi..f~i I
159 Pl””l~fula ~ “€r ~-m qjefl @ i ?
( 1) ~ cfiT qjqq, WTocfi” !11cJ@r~T cffiiITTIT i I
(2) ~. ~ t ~ ~ .,ff t’ I
(3) ~ ~ !ff3T “If ‘1m’ ’31IB I
( 4) ~ qiT ~ Wloc6 cfiq’cfil~T cffiiITTIT i I
160 ~ It ~ qj) ffilf II t ~ ~ t m~
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
I ~I ~ II t(’11fc6~ (i) TJlf m l!I tjf cffet ~,”‘if·q; ~ (ii) ~ i:llcflq(OI · Ciii) ~ i:r~an c6l” l3IDf
e1~-1,hllft<i1 (iv) ~ !$1
~-~lj”Q”~”lf~~~~:
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 41
157 Which of the following is against the rules
of ICBN?
(1) Scientific names are in Latin and should
be italized.
(2) Generic and specific names should be
written starting with small letters .
(3) Hand written scientific names should
be underlined.
(4) Every species should have a generic
name and a specific epithet.
158 Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by an
organism which has :
(1) free RNA without protein coat
(2) free DNA without protein coat
(3) inert crystalline structure
(4) abnormally folded protein
159 Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Fungal component of lichens is called
phycobiont.
160
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2) Lichens are not good pollution
indicators.
(3) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
( 4) Algal component of lichens is called
mycobiont.
Match the organisms in column I with
habitats in column II.
Column I Column II
Halophiles (i) Hot springs
Thermoacidophiles (ii) Aquatic
environment
Methanogens (iii) Guts of
ruminants
Cyanobacteria (iv) Salty areas
Select the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
[ Contd

fu”lll’114-al ~ ~ -e- ~ ll’l ~ ~ ~ -e- Mt? (1) \’.l-l.::a@l’tll afli: ~,:r t Gfl”‘tl” ~ ~ ffllc6T’3TT -e- (2) ~ ~ i:lid <.l'{~”lll ~ -e- ~ cfl’fll” ~ (3) ~ ~ t -.fl-€r fuIB i3dc6 ~ !l1iM1~i:i11-1 t ~ fuIB ~ ~ t ~ ‘qpJ -e- (4) ~ ~ -e- 162 f.p:.i~fuia ~ -e- ~- ‘tlc:f,:b(ql( quf fcFli-IB “QTll”T “ijj’@l i ? (1) qcrR.)Ptl/7 (2) q;,c0~)·f?m (3) W”ffi (4) ~ffl 163 ffi &i cfiWJT ~ m-l=r ‘.J11lil~d ~ 00 ‘t? (1) 1T ~ (2) (3) -qr~ (4) ~ 164 ~ “f.fiT6o IDU ~ cfRilT fili3tsifr rq ~
mart?
(1) mffl (2) fe~P,47
(3) ~ (4) 7?ffll/”
165 ~ I cm- ffilf II t m~ ~ ~ ~
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
qi@1{ I qi@1{ II
~ 1344>(01 (i) mfr.:rr~”fi”~~
(lll11c/,lll (ii) “&fq ~ Me™a
“4<TT~ “qjl” “Cfi”6FTT
mm41 (iii) •(ili~cfiiSl’ii\1 ~
•(lll~cfiit(ilfqs c6T
f.rajur
(l~<Sllt:11’1 (iv) $r~’3TT cfj”f “4Tffl
.frir faA 1lir ~ ~ -e- ~ ~ ·13-~·cg~ :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 42
161
162
163
164
165
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
In the dicot root the vascular cambium
originates from :
(1) Parenchyma between endodermis and
pericycle
(2) Intrafascicular and interfascicular tissue
in a ring
(3) Tissue located below the phloem
bundles and a portion of pericycle tissue
above protoxylem.
(4) Cortical region
Which of the following shows whorled
phyllotaxy ?
(1) Alstonia (2) Calotropis
(3) Mustard (4) China rose
Regeneration of damaged growing grass
following grazing is largely due to :
(1) Intercalary meristem
(2) Secondary meristem
(3) Lateral meristem
(4) Apical meristem
Bicarpellary ovary with obliquely placed
septum is seen in :
(1) Solanum (2) Sesbania
(3) Brassica (4) Aloe
Match the column I with column II.
Column I Column II
Golgi apparatus (i) Synthesis of
protein
Lysosomes (ii) Trap waste and

~&TU~cf>T~, ~cf>Tf.fi:!fur, F1
l3fl1″ F2 ~ cfil l¾i-ri~fu!c1 -it’~ qr{ ~ i3’IT ~ i ? (1) ~ ~ ‘(crf) (2)
(3) (4) ~ ~ m 167 ft!”~ t ~ -it’ l¾i-rii’eftfu!c1 -it’ ~ cht-=r-m cfi~ Btt ~ i ? (1) ii ql9.~4l ra i ‘3TR ~ 6tr4_T ~ m i I (2) .)- ftr~ l\tr ~ m t I (3) ~ ~ ~ ffi -it’ i3’IT
~ii
( 4) .)- “Cfij-3TT t ‘3WTT~Tir i3frr iRt ~ -it’ -qw’1f@”t I 168 lfT ctl” ~ -it’ 1frcr ~. ~ i3frr ~ ‘3TTft:@T tmmu11mi? (1) ~”8cf~ (2) ~ ,3ffi ‘q1Ff ( 3) ‘3«! ft c=;i cf .:i ~ (4) Jtc=;igf6c!ct,(UI 169 • (Ttl~s .:rT ~ ~ ~ m-ffi i ?
(1) efteiJ111l$&’1 “flffrliT
(2) ~
(3) #en ti)Af}q, M
( 4) Wf/iT ,&m➔I
170 i6 i¾i-ri~©cl ~ “tf’ ~ cht-=r-m ~ i ~00~~-?t’
i3’IT ~ t ?
(1) t11$11¥1tJn.q1 ~ O$iiflRl4’1
(2) l.ft4(f&t&e ‘3ffi t11$-fl,q-[/f<41 (3) l.ft4(Ri!&e ~ (1$iffl4tl ( 4) <1$iit7Rl4’1 -3m (1$111}qe F1
Hindi+English ] 43
166 The production of gametes by the parents,
the formation of zygotes, the F 1 and F2 plants,
can be understood using
(1) Punnet square
(2) Wenn diagram
(3) Pie diagram
( 4) A pyramid diagram
167 Which of the following statements about
methanogens is not correct ?
(1) They grow aerobically and breakdown
cellulose-rich food.
(2) They produce methane gas.
(3) These can be used to produce biogas.
( 4) They are found in the rumen of cattle
and their excreta.
168 In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic,
virus and powdery mildew were brought
about by:
(1) Tissue culture
(2) Hybridization and selection
(3) Mutation breeding
( 4) Bio fortification
169 Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from:
(1) Erythroxylum coca
(2) Datura
(3) Papaver somniferum
(4) Atropha belladona
170 Among the following pairs of microbes,
which pair has both the microbes that can be
used as biofertilizers ?
(1) Cyanobacteria and Rhizobium
(2) A~pergillus and Cyanobacteria
(3) Aspergillus and Rhizopus
(4) Rhizobium and Rhizopus
[ Contd …
aglasem.com
171 ~f&,(4’/fJ.q/ -q’ fciR:r ~ qiT 1TT11l11T men- t ?
(1) ~ ilflil r.6)- ~ t ~ ‘3M i’ ‘3IT( q(l•lq,01
~ &TU ~ ;mir iJfffi i’ I
(2) ijfl’i r.6)- ~ -q-r -IT ~ c61″ ilflil r.6)- trman’
IDU t llffi~ ~ ‘1fIBT t1 (3) 1TTl1TUT ilflil ~ fuffu -q’ ilflil t IDU men-%I (4) ~ ilflil r.6)- ~ t ~ ri i’ ~ i:rCTl”fOT cClif &TU m-a,- t I 172 PlkifM@a q~’3fn: lN1ld:!lllll WTl1f
ffl’ c61″ tt “”{l”qjT ‘J1TaT i- ?
(1) &ttl” (2) “J:{cfqjf
(3) Tfi_ (4) ~
173 ‘llllllia•·l..11(1 ~ “W6TU (c!mifl, – I) ~ ~ ‘3&1(1;(Ufi
(cfffiiflf – II) c61″ ~ ~ I
en@’ll’-1 ~-II
(a) i3llmfr (i) mm
(b) ~ (ii) ~ Tfll1″
(c) ~ (iii) (d) “Tffi ~ (iv) (i(llljT ~m
t?
(1) “&l” ~ ~ ~ qlffl ~-~IIJ’ll~IJ’l
(2) “&l” ~ ~ ~ cfRi1T fu-~lll11’1’1!
(3) “C;i:b~ ~~cffiifl qgb:6Ji!f!IJ’ll’j1Ji
(4) cfR ~ ~ ~ cffffi ~-~”IIJ’lf~,jj
175 Plki Rrlfula -q’ ~ ~Tq, ¥ t tirlfl1lTT t ~
01-fltllll1″1 cfil” Yi:,illf.i~ –
(1) ~. ~. -i11%tf’tia
(2) \j!Yl;lf’tid, q(~(o!.llq-l(~d, ~<q
(3) ~. ~er, q<~<c£114″1
(4) \jj%lf’tid, q(~(o!.11~, i:bll-ll(~d
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 44
171 What type of pollination takes place in
Vallisneria ?
(1) Flowers emerge above water surface,
and pollen is carried by wind.
(2) Male flowers are carried by water
currents to female flowers at surface of
water.
(3) Pollination occurs in submerged
condition by water.
( 4) Flowers emerge above surface of water,
and pollination occurs by insects.
172 In which one of the following, both autogamy
and geitonogamy are prevented ?
173
174
175
(1) Castor (2) Maize
(3) Wheat (4) Papaya
Match the placental types ( column – I) with
their examples ( column – II).
Column – I Column – II
(a) Basal (i) Mustard
(b) Axile (ii) China rose
( c) Parietal (iii) Dianthus
(d) Free central (iv) Sunflower
Choose the correct answer from the following
options :
(1) (a)-(iv), (b )-(ii), ( c )-(i), ( d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Which is the most common type of embryo
sac in angiosperms ?
(1) Monosporic with two sequential mitotic
divisions
(2) Bisporic with two sequential mitotic
divisions
(3) Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of
divisions
(4) Monosporic with three sequential
mitotic divisions
From the following, identify the correct
combination of salient features of Genetic
Code –
(1) Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate
(2) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Nonambiguous
(3) Universal, Non-ambiguous,
Overlapping
( 4) Degenerate, Overlap

~ fc6B- a$11f.lq, ~ 1,11<l1~1q, wr ~ ~ fc6-irr ~
~cti)flq”)q,’flil q ~ lfl?f ~Tc6 iroet ~.lff.~.
%- ?
(1) Q~1 i3fR m:r
(2) ~’3nl:~
(3) ~ am~
c 4) ~ am ~
177 <{~f<<-11l ll ~ c6t ~ -q RNA (‘3ITT”.lff.~.)
q1willh1 – I ~ i3ljeflfuia tRcIT %- ?
(1) rRNAs – 28 S, 18 Sam 5.8 S
(2) mRNA cnT ~’ hnRNA
(3) mRNA cnT ~. ~ ~. “f§lcr-f
i3{R~
(4) tRNA, 5 srRNA i3fn: snRNAs
178 Plkif(rffuia -q “€1- fc6B- ~Tc6 fuifu -q: v~
~ c6t ~m -q ~ ftif1T ~ XXY ffl i ?
(1) fqi., l~tlcli!(lll
c2) m~
(3) a@ef’1£11
(4) cf(ill~iiQiW{t ~
179 q_~fl<-1’1<! (t1~”1li2ba:tl) -q ~ ~ ~ atr{ ~
cnT(Cfi~iffe@~?
(1) ffilf~T: j3 afR “(
(2) ffilf~T: a i3lR O’
(3) ffilf~T: cr ‘3tIT P
( 4) ffilf~T: a afR (3
176 Which scientist experimentally proved that
DNA is the sole genetic material in
bacteriophage ?
( 1) Hershey and Chase
(2) Jacob and Monod
(3) Beadle and Tautum
( 4) Messelson and Stahl
177 In the process of transcription in Eukaryotes,
the RNA polymerase I transcribes –
(1) rRNAs – 28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S
(2) Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA
(3) mRNA with additional processing,
capping and tailing
(4) tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNAs
178 In which genetic condition, each cell in the
affected person, has three sex chromosomes
XXY?
(1) Phenylketonuria
(2) Turner’s Syndrome
(3) Thalassemia
(4) Kleinfelter’s Syndrome
179 What initiation and termination factors are
involved in transcription in Eukaryotes ?
(1) 13 and y, respectively
(2) a and cr, respectively
(3) cr and p, respectively
( 4) a and 13, respectively
180 “lil’fq ~ mIB ~ ~ ii’ Plki~furn -q: ~ ~- 180
m ~ oo t- ?
Which of the following statements is correct
about the origin and evolution of men ?
(1) m ~~: lffif ffl U I (1) Homo habilis probably ate meat.
(2) ~w +fRq 1,00,000 “€1- 40,000 q1f 1icl
~Tlll 1l ~ U I
(3) ? WfJllT 50,000 q1f ~ i3f1-ql” I
( 4) ~ afR ~”ii( crr;:n: uf1″ 15
~ q1f ~ ~ ~. ~ lfr”1q c6t ~
‘fRi@ ~ I
F1 _ Hindi+English ] 45
(2) Neanderthal men lived in Asia between
1,00,000 and 40,000 years back.
(3) Agriculture came around 50,000 years
back.
( 4) The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus
primates existing 15 million years ago,
walked like men.
[ Contd …
aglasem.com
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK/~ qiJl{ ~ ~ iil1l6
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